It literally said (of a person or their judgment) in the definition.
Do you read anything I write? Here is what I said. The full sentence;
“Objectivity isn’t referring to the judging of anything, it’s referring to the essence of what’s being judged.”
Note the bold where I mention that something is in fact being judged. My entire post was about how there has to be a mind involved in the processing of the statement and how this fits into the concept of objectivity as being independent of the mind.
Here is your full definition:
“(of a person or their judgment) not influenced by personal feelings or opinions in considering and representing facts.”
These two statements are perfectly in line with each other. Your definition begins with the acknowledgment of the fact that something is being judged which is an acknowledgment that there has to be some mind involved in the process. It then moves on to explaining that the judgement is “not influenced by personal feelings or opinions”. So what would be an example of something that’s not influenced by personal feelings or opinions? The shape of the earth.
It’s the same damn thing I just said. There are two parts; the processing (done by a mind) and the essence (independent of the mind). Both are required. Without the latter it’s not objective, without the former there’s no statement of objectivity/subjectivity to even consider.
It requires God who created it.
Meaningless statement. You’re talking to an atheist.
our mind shouldn’t be compared to His
The idea that god has some kind of different mind is purely made up and devoid of any meaning.
Lastly it seems like your backpedaling from your previous argument because before I said a subjective opinion can’t be taught and now your saying subjective morality can’t be demonstrated, which is basically the same thing.
It’s not backpedaling, you don’t understand it.
I never took the position that something subjective can’t be taught, that was your argument. I showed how morality despite being subjective can be taught (because it is objective from the standpoint of the standard).
I’ve explained this multiple times already. It’s not an absolute. It *depends* on where we are starting from. This is not complicated.
If we are starting from the standpoint of a particular standard, morality is objectively discernible from that point.
If we are starting at a point before a standard is invoked and agreed upon, morality is subjective because any standard can be challenged and there is no means to resolve that dispute other than personal opinion or preference.
Your position is that the latter is still objective because you know, God n stuff. That’s a declaration, not an argument. And it’s one that defies basic logic.