Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?

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@SkepticalOne
You have not shown a relative reference point can make sense of itself as anything other than brute force, Skep.
So, a good move in chess (according to rules we made up) doesn't make sense? I think the problem is [a] you have a particular answer in your head, and if someone doesn't agree then they must be wrong.
The game was designed with specific rules [...]
Again you argue my point - the chess we play today doesn't use the same rules as the first chess game. The rules are not fixed and we can still use them as a standard.
Okay, I grant that some chess rules changed on an 8 X 8 board in 1450 to our modern game version. Chess, in its modern form, what you and I know as chess, has universally recognized rules for the game that we appeal to when we look up the rules of the game. Chess in the 6th century in India did not have the exact same rules we now play. The rules were different. The modern version was derived from the ancient game. To play that game you have to abide by its rules. Chess today is derived from its earlier version. Someone made a new version using some of those rules, yes. To play the modern game you have to abide by its rules, just like 3D chess has different rules from normal modern chess. To play that chess game you have to abide by its rules. The basics are fixed. 

The analogy of Chess to the Ten Commandments or to God is that there are different moral rules, just like there are different games of chess. Each game has specific rules like each commandment has a different and specific meaning.  

Thus, the game we play today (on an 8 X 8 board) recognized as having sixteen pieces per side has universal rules that apply to everyone playing normal chess on an 8 X 8 board, as sanctioned by the FIDE and other chess organizations. I'm not speaking of 3D chess, which has its own set of rules, or some other variant in which people get creative and make up their own rules, nor of the different time restrictions depending on whether one plays speed chess, tournament chess, or a friendly game.

With Chess, the original game had rules that were modified by those who came later, just like Christians argue that God gave rules of morality that were modified by societies and those who came later. But we can point to the final objective reference point, the Ten Commandments/God, like we can point to the final objective reference point --> Chess. Each of the Ten Commandments conveys a specific truth to it. The Ten Commandments (at least the six that apply to our human relationship) is the moral compass that moral laws are built upon by societies. Most societies recognize murder is wrong, as they do adultery, or stealing. With the Fall they do not recognize  or abide by so much the commandments that deal with God.

The question is how would something be wrong for everyone if there were no moral absolute, no final reference point or court of appeal?  

Once again, Magnetic north points to a specific location, TRUE North.

If you're trying to equate "God" to "true north" you're undermining your argument while fortifying mine. True north is a point on Earth we decided was important. 
I like the analogies. I am establishing that there are objective references we can know. Magnetic north has to be based on true north, and true north is a specific location. You can't have a true North unless there is such a place, just like you can't have a city called London, England located in Sidney, Australia. If you flew from New York to London you would not land up in Sidney.  
[a] Ok, you're arguing things humans have come up with can be an objective reference? [b] How do you think this is different that what I've been saying all along?
[a] Quantitatively, yes. How do you do that qualitatively without God? True north is a specific quantitative point on the earth. Magnetic north points in the general direction of true north. Magnetic north is a way of finding true north or the exact location.     

[b] I'm asking for your objective qualitative reference point. You say there can be one without God. I ask what that is. Let's test its objectivity. 

I supplied a plain reading of the text which has the god of the Bible condoning humans owning humans in perpetuity. We can either accept the words of the Bible OR human interpretations of the "Word of God". 
I explained to you that God never condoned the type of slavery practiced in Egypt. The text you supplied has to be understood in relationship to what it meant in the ANE AND IN CONTEXT to Old Covenant Israel.
An all-knowing, all-powerful being is incapable of clearly communicating to humanity and needs his words for humans to be explained by humans
No, I argue that you are incapable of rightly interpreting His word, because of the noetic effect and your natural bias. How can you who are not spiritual speak of spiritual things without getting mixed up? You demonstrated in our debates that you can't understand basic hermeneutics and proper exegesis. You do not understand what "this generation" means in relation to the audience of address. You and Stephen are in the same boat. 
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Okay, I grant that some chess rules changed [...]

The question is how would something be wrong for everyone if there were no moral absolute, no final reference point or court of appeal?  
'The question is how would moving a king like a queen be wrong if there were no chess absolute, no final reference point or court of appeal? ...oh wait, there is none of that in chess and we still know it is wrong according to the unfixed rules. The answer to your question is provided by the chess analogy you're torturing. ...poor little guy. :-p

[a] Quantitatively, yes. How do you do that qualitatively without God? 
[b] I'm asking for your objective qualitative reference point. You say there can be one without God. I ask what that is. Let's test its objectivity. 
[a] What is this supposed to mean? Keep it short and sweet, please.
[b] What [a] said.

An all-knowing, all-powerful being is incapable of clearly communicating to humanity and needs his words for humans to be explained by humans
No, I argue that you are incapable of rightly interpreting His word, because of the noetic effect and your natural bias. 
Either you're not human or you didn't grasp the question.... want to try again?
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@SkepticalOne
Okay, I grant that some chess rules changed [...]

The question is how would something be wrong for everyone if there were no moral absolute, no final reference point or court of appeal?  
'The question is how would moving a king like a queen be wrong if there were no chess absolute, no final reference point or court of appeal? ...oh wait, there is none of that in chess and we still know it is wrong according to the unfixed rules. The answer to your question is provided by the chess analogy you're torturing. ...poor little guy. :-p
The question is, how could you move a king or queen without a game involving those concepts and with fixed rules such as Chess? Would each person invent a new game every time that sat down in front of a chessboard? The game of Chess started with rules that changed later. You had to have the game to alter the rules. There is universality in how to play the modern game we call Chess. 

There is universality in what we call Chess. It is not backgammon or checkers, and it does not share those rules. Likewise, with morality, God laid down the rules of morality in the Ten Commandments. They are an appeal by humans to universal, objective, fixed laws of moral conduct. The six rules that deal with humanity are generally considered wrong to some extent in most cultures, despite Hollywood glorifying adultery and murder and every other vice. Hollywood glorifying these vices has affected how people think about such evils, but they are still wrong because God in His wisdom recognizes how they hurt people and how they are not loving. The same goes for Academia and the media. They brainwash people into what they "should" believe. God, in His nature, reflects what is good and right. These vices mentioned disagree with the goodness of God. That brings up the question of standards and why two opposing human standards on the same issue are equally considered correct, depending on which view one holds. How can that be? How can you have objective universal values without a fixed standard of appeal? How does that come from relative human beings other than by claiming brute fact or imposing their views on others by force? How does either make something right? It just makes it mandatory that you do it unless you have the power to oppose it. You avoided my questioning in my last post yet again on this matter. 

Here are my questions to you again:

1) The question is, how would something be wrong for everyone if there were no moral absolute, no final reference point or court of appeal?

Remember, you said, "Ok, you're arguing things humans have come up with can be an objective reference? How do you think this is different tha[n] what I've been saying all along?

2) I'm asking for your objective qualitative reference point. You say there can be one without God. I ask what that is. Let's test its objectivity. 

[a] Quantitatively, yes. How do you do that qualitatively without God? 
[b] I'm asking for your objective qualitative reference point. You say there can be one without God. I ask what that is. Let's test its objectivity. 
[a] What is this supposed to mean? Keep it short and sweet, please.
We have physical verifications for quantitative values that meet a physical universal standard (IBWN). What do you use for qualitative values?

[b] What [a] said.
How does your opinion or preference qualify as objective and universal. Show me you have a universal refer point for qualitative values that makes sense of them. 

An all-knowing, all-powerful being is incapable of clearly communicating to humanity and needs his words for humans to be explained by humans
No, I argue that you are incapable of rightly interpreting His word, because of the noetic effect and your natural bias. 
Either you're not human or you didn't grasp the question.... want to try again?
I answered your question. You charged God with the inability to communicate with humanity. Your bias is loud and clear. I charge you with not correctly understanding His revelation because of your confirmation bias and the indoctrination of your thinking into such a view as the one you currently hold. You scrapped the Christian worldview first for agnosticism, then atheism, then for your Flying Spaghetti Monster or some other crazy, far-out view. I gave you examples of how you butchered Scripture by your eisegesis in our debates. You go against what Scripture reveals in 2 Timothy 2:15 and 2 Timothy 3:16 as to there being a correct interpretation.  



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@Amoranemix
Post 1289:

So, is that only your specific god or just any god in general? ...and how do you know god is not a meaning you've manufactured?
Because of the contradictory nature of different gods there can only be one true and living God.
[a] This answer is so incomplete it is wrong. Its true some god concepts contradict and cannot be true at the same time. [b] However, not all god concepts are mutually exclusive and [c] they could be true at the same time. [d] Additionally, there could be one god ...or no gods. If your reasoning for the existence of the Christian god is 'no other option is logically possible', you're in for a rude awakening, my friend.
[a] Are you saying that the 'gods' of the New Age Movement are the same God of Scripture? They contradict each other. 
Are you saying the god Muslims believe in is the same God of Christianity or Judaism? Again, although they all source the same God, they have different concepts of Him, contradictory ones. I have books that go into the conflicting nature of what Islam and Christianity believe about God and Jesus. Islam denies Jesus is God incarnate.
Are you saying the gods of other religions are the same as the God of Christianity? Comparing the teachings counters such claims. 
Are you saying the god of Mormonism or the JW's is the same as the biblical God?  

[b] I believe they are contradictory to the Judeo-Christian God, and they all claim some exclusivity. The biblical revelation of God claims He is the one and only true God. The NT biblical revelation claims there is only ONE WAY to God, through the means God has given --> His Son. The OT revelation claims one way of salvation according to that covenant, via works. The NT claims that works are insufficient, and it is by God's grace alone that we are saved. 

Bahaism teaches that all major religions are progressive manifestations of God (kind of like blind men touch an elephant and each saying it is something else rather than what it actually is) but of course, their revelation is the most recent and trusted, thus once again their exclusivity is taught. 

[c] Two contrary things cannot logically both be true at the same time.  

[d] More to the point, which is it? It can only be one or the other. How would you know there is no God? I say, make sense of existence without first presupposing God. I say you can't, however much you claim you can. Or is it that you don't care? You appear to care. You vehemently oppose what I say.  

The Judeo-Christian God is the only God I defend against attack, not that He needs defending, but because the message is worth telling and gives meaning to the lives of those who will believe because of the message/His revelation. 

First, this doesn't explain how the basis of meaning in your life (god) is not a manufactured meaning. I mean, it is the very thing you seem to despise in other foundations: subjective.
I recognize my limitations to an extent. That is why I see the necessity in God setting the record straight. What is the plumb line or blueprint you go by? Why should I believe your subjective reference point? I point to something and, more precisely, Someone beyond my limited self, which is necessary. You are not needed in determining what the actual case is. You don't even know what the case is. In past conversations, you have pleaded ignorance and the "I don't know." Your credibility is not something I trust. 

Secondly, a 'message that gives meaning' could be applied to innumerable things and is not a strong justification for preferring one over another.
Meaning with morality has to have an ultimate fixed reference point to be anything other than preference. What makes your preference good or right?  

And, if the meaning is something that you manufacture just for this lifetime (in a Universe that is cold and indifferent because there is no personal agency behind it), what makes your meaning any better than mine if we disagree on values? If a person believes raping and stealing gives their life meaning and you don't, why does your belief hold more credibility than theirs? If meaning is just a human construct governed by our genes, society, environment, experience, and macroevolutionary educational indoctrination, how is your belief "better?" Amoranemix (Post 1286) lists, "[i] genes, [ii] education, [iii] life experience and the [iv] environment." There is no ultimate reason I should conform to your meaning in such a Universe, especially if evolution is at play. You give all kinds of human traits and personal abilities to the evolutionary process. How does it direct anything? You and your kind of thinking say it can.  

Wow, thanks, Amoranemix! You are so highly evolved that you should teach me!

Why would you expect my genetic makeup to mimic yours? What is governing how I am made? Is it blind indifferent chance happenstance that you have acquiring or given all kinds of personal agency and intention to and now call evolution? Does that make sense to you? Start at the beginning and explain how this all happens, will you?

How is something that is not personal lead to personal beings? 
How is something that is devoid of intelligence lead to intelligent beings? 
How does something that has no purpose cause purpose? 
How does something without meaning cause meaningful beings? 
How does something without intent or agency sustain anything? 

You believe it can. I say you are gullible to believe such carp. 

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@PGA2.0
The question is, how could you move a king or queen without a game involving those concepts and with fixed rules such as Chess?
There is a definite disconnect here. You are not describing reality as it is. Chess does not have fixed rules - the rules are merely stable. It provides a situation where there is no fixed reference point and we can still objectively determine right from wrong. Its the thing you say cannot exist without god. Apply it to morality and you'll have the answer you don't want. :-)

We have physical verifications for quantitative values that meet a physical universal standard (IBWN). What do you use for qualitative values?
Its still not making sense. What do you mean by quantitative and qualitative values? Give examples if possible.

I answered your question. You charged God with the inability to communicate with humanity.
I absolutely did not. I was simply pointing out a god shouldn't need humans to interpret his words for other humans.  I'm not interpreting or injecting meanings that aren't written into the passages on slavery - you are. I'm willing to accept that if the words of the Bible are from a God, it says what he meant for it to say. You seem to think it needs explanation because...what, God didn't foresee that people from 2021 would be reading it?
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@Ramshutu
We evolved as part of a social mammals. Evolution of individuals dependent on social groups is a balance between individual and group needs. To prevent individual needs overriding the group and harming everyone’s collective chances of survival; individuals need to be motivated to prevent themselves or others from harming the group.
Thank you for your three thumbs up (to date) post!

So, what you are saying is that if a group promotes the killing of some of its members, based on race, that's okay. It's a group thing. How about the marginalizing of a group, or even its dehumanization? Is that okay as long as the majority support the idea?

To this end; what we experience as “morality” is the learned emotional response that helps drives behaviour to conform to the groups ideals, and want to punish others that don’t. 
Right now, in what I presume to be your country, the USA, the majority group collective forms the opinion (through emotional investment and response) that all white people are collectively evil in that they promote/d black slavery and discrimination. What about the discrimination happening to these whites? Is that okay in your subjective books? Thus, we witness the justification of pummeling and demeaning this group, white people, and targeting them similar to the Nazis targeted the Jews which lead to their dehumanization by the majority group(s) and those in power. 

As the article points out, what was done to black people forty years ago is now being done to white people and conservatives. This is evilness personified. We should not be making these kinds of divisions to win political votes and push an evil agenda, IMO. All human beings are equally valid, not just the BLM. What is being done to the police is also criminal (literally).  

Furthermore, how can you justify something as good if there is no fixed identity for goodness, just made up by one group in reaction to their emotions that opposes another group? 

That is an objective imperative that leads to learned subjective moral systems and does not necessitate the need for any deity.
You presume that subjective moral systems are good/sound because some subjective individual or group push their social preference. Again, I ask, logically, how can two opposing belief systems be "right" or true/correct regarding the same thing??? For one group, good is raping women, and for another, the "good" prevents such an occurrence. In Mexico, the drug cartels think it is good to make money by exploiting the border situation. The human traffickers believe it is perfectly justifiable to rape women. Does that make it so because emotionally, they identify with the need to do so? Only right for the small group or segment of that society, or NOT? Why do most Democrats in the USA tolerate this kind of behaviour if it is so wrong? They turn a blind eye to the evils that go on, and how can they call such a thing evil if the majority group condones such behaviour? And I could go through history listing such moral atrocity that you say depends on the subjective group like or preference = the good. Your system of subjective and personal morality does not work because it begs one subjective preference over another. How can you tie down the good when you have such conflict and no objective, ultimate, unchanging reference point?

Answer: You can't.

Group preference is not an objective imperative. It is a subjective imperative of which might makes "right." Might making right is what dictators, oligarchs, and those in power do to the rest when they can't explain what morality is and why it matters. They force their preference on others.

To follow up on a few points:

1.) Morality appears subjective.

What you experience as moral drive is dependent on where and when you lived. [a] Humans at various times have been fine with murder, slavery, infanticide, rape, genocide, etc - and that’s in the Bible - the place where your objective unchanging moral standard is written.
Why should I believe your subjective and limited opinion? Establish morality from the best. What is the best? You can't have it where subjective morals are concerned. It is always "evolving" to a new better without the possibility of ever reaching the best. You can't reach the best because you have no reference point of what is best. It is all made up of those in power or those with the biggest or most influential group. They foyster their subjective beliefs on others. (Please, forgive my rant and indignation, but why SHOULD I believe your view? And how do you get an "ought" from an "is?")

So, based on morality being conditional on where you live, would you say that it is good to rape innocent human beings for some? 

And how do you explain a society believing at one time that adultery or abortion was evil and wrong and then the same culture, thinking it is good and morally permissible? Which value is the actual value (and good)? Is abortion good, or is it evil? You have no fixed identity, making it senseless.

You can even take individuals who are moral, and place them in a scenario where they have power over others - and you can change their moral decision making.
Moral in whose opinion? Why SHOULD I believe your opinion when it opposes mine? 

[a] Nothing at all, in any aspect of human behaviour even whispers that a universal objective moral standard exists - [b] everything screams that it’s learned/taught and influenced behaviour based on social groups. And you can’t suggest otherwise unless you want to beg the question and assert that behaviour of those in the 1st century that they considered valid and moral was actually truly “immoral” by some objective or singular standard.
[a] It most certainly does. The fact is that all humans who are capable of thinking about morality identify right and wrong. We all are offended when a moral injustice is perpetrated upon us or those we love. If there is no objective moral standard then morality cannot be made sense of, so why the moral indignation when someone beats up a persons innocent child or kills them?

[b] Not necessarily. It is also explained as a God given conscience that differentiates between good and evil. That is the side that you choose to ignore or explain away, probably because of your worldview commitment. Most thinking human beings at some time in their life contemplate God and wrestle with the meaning and purpose of life. The popular paradigm usually wins out. Atheism is in fashion or as the Bible puts it,

Seeing the crowds, He felt compassion for them, because they were distressed and downcast, like sheep without a shepherd. 

People can be like sheep lead astray by wolves, jumping from wolf to wolf because they have no Shepherd, no ultimate point of reference. They create their own meaning and purpose in what they perceive (without God) is a meaningless universe. 

           
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@Ramshutu
Continue:

2.) If [a] morality is subjective, why should it matter what we do?

What makes you think it does? In fact [b] presupposing that morality exists above and external to us such that how we act “matters” in some universal sense is inherently begging the very question (again) you’re answering.

[c] Why does it matter to us as individuals? We still live and exist in a society in which acting badly can impact our quality of life. [d] Just should remember that there’s a difference between morality being subjective and morality not existing, after all.

Put us in the zombie apocalypse that calculus would definitely change.
[a] Don't confuse morality with a moral preference (subjectivity or relativism) that ultimately means nothing since it can mean anything a person wants to make it mean. The moral loses its identity. 

[b] Presupposing objective, unchanging, morality exists is the only way to make sense of it other than by insisting on brute facts or subjective preference as right. There is no right to subjective preference unless such preference conforms to what is the case, i.e., what is right.  

[c] So what? What makes that right? You use the term "badly" in reference to what? Why is what you deem bad actually so? Who are you to say? Why should I value your subjective opinions, or you justifying your subjective opinions? Unless you can show me necessarily that what you believe is actually right or true or correct I reject your whole argument. You are just like me, a relative, subjective human being. Big deal.  

[d] You confuse the "is" with the "ought."  

3.) Subjectivity is more than preference.

[a] You are confusing subjectivity a little here by limiting its application.

Taste and preference - whether I like cake or ice cream better - is subjective. But that’s a false equivalence as we don’t have as much of an inherent emotional reaction to ice cream as we do morality.

[b] Compare morality to something like fear. Fear is subjective.

You can be afraid of clowns, heights, falling, dogs, cats, etc; I could not. 

What you’re afraid of is not down to preference, but [c] experience and learned behaviour.

[d] Conflating Learned behaviour and experience driving subjectivity with purely taste and preference downplays the inherent nature of the thing you’re comparing.
[a]  Alternatively, you are giving subjectivity more application that it has in determining the right or moral good. 

[b] Again, you confuse the is with the ought. Behaviour is what is. Moral good is what ought to be. Behaviour is something descriptive. Morality is something prescriptive, something we should do because it is right to do. One is a quantity, the other is a quality.

[c] Experience and behaviour is what is. They are descriptive terms. They describe, not prescribe. Without God, its all mechanics. It is something physical that triggers by something else physical, the reaction or the rote or habit of reacting in a particular way. Furthermore, if all we are is biological mechanism how can you say what one biological mechanism does is any BETTER than what another biological mechanism does? 

[d] I don't understand what you are driving at here.   

Perfect love drives out fear.

4.) [a] Gods Morality is not objective either.

[b] Simply declaring God as the source of morality, then giving up doesn’t really solve the problem.

[c] If God arbitrarily declared murder is immoral; he could just have easily have declared that murder is fine, and eating with your mouth full was immoral. 

That means morality is just as arbitrary and subjective as what you’re attacking in Atheism, no?
 
If God has simply arbitrarily declared murder is wrong - why does it matter if we murder people? Without an objective imperative - which arbitrarily declaring sets of behaviours as good or bad, there’s no reason for any given moral standard at all.

[d] If God didn’t arbitrarily declare murder is wrong - then that implies that morality and ethics is external to God.

[e] Indeed simply invoking a deity and declaring that they made morality isn’t an explanation of anything - it’s an absence of an explanation.

[f] The reality is fairly clear though, one of our explanations boils down to an objective imperative, explains the nature of human moral experience; one of us is postulating an arbitrary moral standard that is invoked without explanation or necessity; with no objective foundation.
[a] Yes, it is. His nature is all knowing. He knows what hurts and what helps. Subjective human beings are lost in their relativism and don't always recognize the difference between harm and help. Many human beings believe that they are helping when they condone abortion, but they neglect what they are killing. 

[b] The biblical God has what is NECESSARY for morality, and such a God is said to reveal, per the Bible. The justification or evidence for the biblical God is far greater and logical than any other said gods.   

[c] God does not arbitrarily declare. Morality is not external to God. Morality is based on His unchanging, loving nature. You keep assuming many things about God. What is your justification to do so? 

[d] No, that is not necessarily what it implies. God does what is in His nature to do. Knowing all things, His nature is loving. Love does not murder the innocent. If God takes an innocent life He then restores it to a better existence, one devoid of evil. Evil is what human beings do when they ignore God's goodness. The Ten Commandments reveal what should and should not be done as an objective source for human morality.     

[e] I invoke what is necessary for morality - the Judeo-Christian God. I understand you do not like that and want to fight it tooth and claw. You want to base morality on your subjective preferences or those of others. Why are your subjective preferences any BETTER than those of others who oppose your views? Again, because you like or prefer your views? Big deal.  

[f] Here I agree with you! You are imposing an arbitrary moral standard on me that is devoid of sufficient explanation. It boils down to you or others, in your relativism, playing God and decreeing what SHOULD be without the moral authority to do so.

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@SkepticalOne
The question is, how could you move a king or queen without a game involving those concepts and with fixed rules such as Chess?
There is a definite disconnect here. You are not describing reality as it is. Chess does not have fixed rules - the rules are merely stable. It provides a situation where there is no fixed reference point and we can still objectively determine right from wrong. Its the thing you say cannot exist without god. Apply it to morality and you'll have the answer you don't want. :-)
You have to have a game (Chess) to have rules for it. Without that game rules are meaningless. The rules for the modern game are fixed. The fixed reference point is the game. 

We have physical verifications for quantitative values that meet a physical universal standard (IBWN). What do you use for qualitative values?
Its still not making sense. What do you mean by quantitative and qualitative values? Give examples if possible.
Qualitative - that which is prescribed, abstract, non physical, cannot be physically measured.

Quantitative - able to physically measure with the five senses because of the physical nature of the thing measured, therefore descriptive.   

I answered your question. You charged God with the inability to communicate with humanity.
[a] I absolutely did not. I was simply pointing out a god shouldn't need humans to interpret his words for other humans.  [b] I'm not interpreting or injecting meanings that aren't written into [c] the passages on slavery - you are. I'm willing to accept that if the words of the Bible are from a God, it says what he meant for it to say. [d] You seem to think it needs explanation because...what, God didn't foresee that people from 2021 would be reading it?
[a] You said more than that.  

You said: 

"An all-knowing, all-powerful being is incapable of clearly communicating to humanity and needs his words for humans to be explained by humans

I don't understand you logic here. God is revealing to humans. Why would He speak in a language that humans are incapable of understanding? His word is the objective standard, and when we do not interpret according to what He means we corrupt His meaning. 

[b] You are and have done so many times. I pointed out some of those instances in our debate. You think "this generation" means "that generation." You ignore the time references and the primary audience of address in coming to your debate conclusions. So, even though we are speaking of what the Bible says you make it your subjective interpretation of what the Bible says.  

[c] I have explained to you and others many times the meanings of slavery and that God explicitly told Israel never to treat others as they were treated in Egypt.   

[d] No prophecy is to be privately interpreted. A single verse does not create a doctrine either. We have to take the whole of Scripture into consideration when understanding biblical doctrine. We also have to take into consideration (as I already mentioned) the audience of address and how they would understand something. That is why I keep coming back to one of the passages Stephen identified in his warped theology, Matthew 16:27-28. How would a 1st-century Jew understand the reference to "coming in the Father's glory?" You would have to understand how the Father came in His glory in the OT to understand what Jesus meant.   
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The rules for the modern game are fixed. The fixed reference point is the game. 
If you think the rules of chess have become immutable (since their last change)...I don't know what to tell you. I would say the rule are stable but definitely capable of change. I guess that analogy isn't going to get us anywhere if we don't agree on that.

Can you give examples of qualitative and quantitative values so I can wrap my head around what you're referring to?

His word is the objective standard, and when we do not interpret according to what He means we corrupt His meaning. 
How can it be an objective standard if you need to interpret it? ~40,000 denominations says the Bible isn't an objective standard.

You think "this generation" means "that generation."
Good god, man. We had that debate like 6 years ago! If you haven't figured I'm not impressed by the appeal to your own authority by now its unlikely you ever will. Suffice to say, If God wrote it why should I or anyone care what you (a.k.a "not god") thinks it is supposed to mean?  Besides that, the fact that it isn't clear speaks to an omniscient being NOT being the author - and that is my point here.

[c] I have explained to you and others many times the meanings of slavery and that God explicitly told Israel never to treat others as they were treated in Egypt
Yes, you have said that, but your cherry picking doesn't show the whole picture. I haven't had a good debate in a while. Maybe we can debate slavery in the bible - just a thought. 

No prophecy is to be privately interpreted.

Unless you think the entire Bible is a prophecy, you're not addressing my point entirely. Secondly, people do it all the time, don't they? You need to take that up with your fellow believers. 

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You seem to be mostly ignoring the key points of my arguments to circle back to the same logical errors I already pointed out.

I will reiterate my position to prevent the argument driving off the rails, and try to bring everything back to my central points:

Organisms that evolve as part of a society need to evolve some sort of mechanism to prevent individual behaviour harming everyone’s collective survival by harming the group. Without this, individual selfishness prevents the group from succeeding and thus harms individual survival chances.

In other words, I have a plausible, technical, naturalistic explanation of how humans can acquire a sense of good and bad, and exhibit a conscience without the existence of God.

This need to maintain balance between individual and social group is an objective imperative; as in it can be objectively determined that such an imperative is necessary for those in the group to follow, can be independently constructed - even intelligent spiders without human morality would be able to deduce the generalized basics of our morality based on it. 

As well as being a concrete technical explanation; it also has staggering explanatory power. It nominally explains a large part of human moral interactions and behaviour - why murder is wrong, but murder for self defense is okay, but torture in response to small harm is not (straying from balance presents a harm to society); it’s explains why most individuals are not okay with killing children, and why humans have an innate ability to make moral distinctions between their group differently from other groups; it explains psychopathy; honour among thieves, and any number of other examples of the expression of morality in humans.

My framework provides an objective explanation of almost all facets of human behaviour.

However this morality is inherently subjective - good and bad are only in our heads, and changes from generation to generation, group to group - as it is a learned reaction based on the social norms of a group - there is no separate, objective “true” or “good” outside that; and much of it is purely the arbitrary product of that learning. 


This presents a simple, consistent, logical and extraordinarily reasonable explanation of morality that clearly matches almost all the facts and evidence and doesn’t require God.

Conversely; morality from God is an arbitrarily asserted set of moral truths that cannot be independently deduced, and must be explicitly asserted as truth based on trust with out any capacity to really explain or validate anything. It’s simply arbitrary ignorance asserted loudly as if truth. There is a difference

An objective morality would be one everyone could agree on, anyone, regardless of culture or belief can validate is correct and true, and can be deduced independently without belief, preference; or assertion. 

Like, say, the mass of a proton. That’s an objective quantity.


Religion clearly and definitively doesn’t provide that - religious leaders of the same denomination often cannot agree what their religion says is moral.

Your argument here, is that God is the moral framework - and even though we can’t see what that framework is, we cannot seem to deduce how it works, we cannot independently assess its validity, and all we really have to show it exists at all is a 2000 year old book that lists a bunch of things we shouldn’t do - this unseen, unknown moral framework is totally objective - and the foundation of good and evil.

To argue the latter is somewhat more reasonable than the former is beyond intellectually dishonest and is, for want of a better phrase, intellectually obnoxious.



This atheistic position of morality blows theistic morality out of the water in every respect as a coherent framework for explaining what we see around us. The central question you posed.


if you pay attention haven’t actually attacked any of the details directly; you don’t attack the technical side, what evidence explains, etc, you don’t challenge the framework or cite objective agreed facts that are antithetical to this explanations.

Instead you just repeat the same underpinning errors I pointed out in my last post over and over again. You put a lot of verbiage in, but really everything you say boils down to a handful of logical fallacies.

I’m going to address these somewhat out of order:
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1.) Morality cannot be subjective because it exists.

I explain in detail why morality is subjective, and you then assert it must be objective because we have the concepts good and bad, and a conscience.

This argument has three critical problems:

  • Good, bad, our conscience are all part of what morality is; thus your argument is that as good, bad and our conscience exist - they must be driven by something objective. This is a ridiculously obtuse non sequitur. 
  • It utterly fails to address any of the ways in which morality is clearly and unambiguously subjective - I listed many cases, especially ones in the Bible, Simply ignoring all the vast evidence that disagrees with you is not intellectually honest.
  • You are asserting that because those things exist, it requires morality to be objective. Recall, my entire argument provides a technical explanation of how these things can specifically exist without morality being objective - so you have ignored a second under pinning part of my argument that pre-rebutted this point.

2.) You are confused as to what subjective morality is.

Am I morally okay with [bad thing]?

The answer is irrelevant.

The question is not whether we feel that things are good or bad - it’s whether the concept of good and bad are products of our mind, and thus have no true value outside of them; or whether good and bad are objective external things that exist outside of our ability to feel them. 

I have argued, and justified why I think it’s valid to conclude there is no “true” best.

Your response through your entire first play, and the bill of the second can really be summarized as:

“there must be a true best, because otherwise, how can there be a true best”.

This is just incoherent circular reasoning.
 
3.) Moralistic fallacy

You follow up with your question begging in multiple places with this gem. Kudos as it’s the First time I’ve seen this fallacy used in these forums

If morality is subjective, we can’t truly deduce an objective right or wrong. Morality is ever changing, comformant to group ideals, mutable.

You may not like that - nor do I; you may be incredulous about it: but if that’s what it is; that’s what it is.

Whether you like the truth, whether the find it sanitary of comfortable is irrelevant to whether it is true or not. 

You are repeatedly implying because that conclusion is undesirable - it is wrong - attempting to appeal to the unpleasant nature of no act being truly or objectively immoral outside the lens of our own subjective moral compass as a reason not to believe it, is incoherent.

4.) Theistic morality is subjective.

Can god command that Murder is moral? It’s a Yes or no question that you evaded with theocrababble.

If he is unable to do so; then Morality is outside of Gods control and cannot - by definition - come from God.

If God is able to do so; would murder be moral. Another yes or no question, which you evaded.

If yes: then morality is inherently subjective and good/bad is arbitrary. If no: morality cannot come from God.

This is the fundamental paradox with your argument; and a primary reason why your argument is completely incoherent. You just evaded the paradox - rather than address it.


What makes it doubly incoherent - is that God commits or commands murder, genocide, slavery, etc,  multiple, multiple times in the Bible. So it’s not even a hypothetical.

Genesis is literally (in approximate order of appearance) genocide of all humanity, destruction of Babel for being too smart, killing lots wife and murdering everyone in sodom, killing everyone in the Egyptian army, telling people not to murder, genocide against the Amelkites, etc. 


Tell me, if this morality is objective; if someone I know is running away from a city I am bombing, it should be morally justified for me to kill them for looking back?

If some kids mock my friend for being bald; is it morally justified for me to release a live bear to maul them? It was moral for God, if morality is objective - the act is moral, right?

If I feel humanity is wicked; is it okay if I destroy the planet but save for a few people I think are good?


The answer is clearly no to all of those for any normal person and that leads to only 2 possibilities

  • Those actions are clearly morally wrong by our standards; and thus God is not a valid moral standard.
  • That “best” in this framework is so arbitrary you can use it to  literally argue genocide is a moral good - making “good” mean whatever you want it to. Thus - Inherently subjective.

What is grotesque here; is that you object to morality only existing in our heads, and judged by ourselves; and yet uphold a system where you must tie yourself in knots to justify genocide as a moral good as virtuous.

It insults all of our intelligence. Stop it.

5.) “If morality were subjective than it would mean [brief description of how the world is]”

I have to mention this, as it’s hilarious.

You argue if morality is subjective it would be impossible to make sense of what is moral of not.

Last time I checked moral philosophers have struggled for millennia on what Makes things moral or not; the church in all its forms have splintered multiple times and often can’t agree on basic nature of what things are moral of not.

You argue if morality is subjective, than one mans good is another mans evil - which is a pretty accurate description of every moral conflict throughout all of human history.

You argue if morality is subjective than morality is set by the group, might makes right, and what is good is ephemeral and would constantly change. Again - this is how everything appears in all human history.

In all these cases, you’re basically proving my point: claiming that if morality was subjective, then we would see things we so clearly and definitively see.

6.) Argument from ignorance

At this point I’m just piling on; but you’re also making an argument from ignorance.

If we ignore all of the above and state that morality is objective (despite all evidence to the contrary).

Suggesting God is the only possibility is an argument from ignorance; as you arbitrarily preclude any other known or unknown explanation.

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I wrapped s bit of exodus into Genesis there, but you get the gist.
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The rules for the modern game are fixed. The fixed reference point is the game. 
If you think the rules of chess have become immutable (since their last change)...I don't know what to tell you. I would say the rule are stable but definitely capable of change. I guess that analogy isn't going to get us anywhere if we don't agree on that.
You made your point. Congratulations! Chess was a poor example and not the best analogy. The analogy of Chess as a unique game with unique rules that makes Chess understandable still stands. Objectively, the rules of chess only suit that game. They don't suit Checkers or Backgammon. The same with God. Objective morality only applies if God exists, and morality is something Amoranemix and Ramshutu believe is relativistic because it is continually "evolving," although Ramshutu tries to mask it as an objective "imperative." That to him seems to only apply to "the group" that adopts some standard of right or wrong, when it is obvious other groups disagree and preach the opposite standard. So, the objectivity is up in the air. The identity is lost when neither group is wrong yet both preach the opposite. 

Can you give examples of qualitative and quantitative values so I can wrap my head around what you're referring to?
Norm Geisler, I Don't Have Enough Faith to Be an Atheist, p.178, argues that to make a map (He uses Scotland in the example) and to call it better than another map, the better map would detail everything geographical more accurately. It would be scaled-down from the actual place called Scotland. In other words, there is a physical location to compare the maps. A better map would be more accurate and representative in its details as to the actual location. Both the place and the map would be quantitative in their natures. They would take from something physical and tangible and draw to scale something physical and real. That would be a quantitative value where you use something physical and measure it with something else physical. You also use descriptive means in evaluating the difference between two material things. For example, I could describe how the coast indents here or juts out there or how a river runs into the sea here and describes the river's bends and turns from its starting place in the mountains. 

But how do you measure abstract ideas like the moral good against the physical? Morals are not quantitative but qualitative. A moral does not have a physical quantity to it. I can't see the physical good, can't taste it, can't feel it, can't smell it, because it is an abstract concept. So, how do you measure it against the physical? It has no physicality of its own. Not only this, when you say something is morally wrong, you are giving it a prescriptive value, a should or an ought. Hume brought up the question of how you get from an "is" to an "ought:" from the physical to the abstract or qualitative if all we are is pure physical beings. How do you compare better when you are not comparing two quantitative or physical values? Moral values that are qualitative need a measurement too. There has to be something we compare something else to or against, and in the case of morals, an unchanging standard, something that is real but abstract. If you don't have a real, unchanging "right" or "good" (the standard of comparison), then how can you say this moral value is better than another? As a relative, subjective being, if you make it up, why is that better? Better than what? Why is what you believe truer than what I think? There has to be that unchanging standard to compare moral values against, or else good become meaningless (it can mean anything). If an objective moral law does not exist, there is nothing to compare goodness to; no identity. How can you know what is wrong unless you know what is right? 
His word is the objective standard, and when we do not interpret according to what He means we corrupt His meaning. 
[a] How can it be an objective standard if you need to interpret it? [b] ~40,000 denominations says the Bible isn't an objective standard.
[a] Because when someone (and that Someone being God) speaks we need to understand what the person says and means. If we do not interpret correctly, we have not understood His message to us or to the primary audience.   

[b] Because the standard is not the 40,000 denominations but God's word, the Bible. 

You think "this generation" means "that generation."
Good god, man. We had that debate like 6 years ago! If you haven't figured I'm not impressed by the appeal to your own authority by now its unlikely you ever will. Suffice to say, If God wrote it why should I or anyone care what you (a.k.a "not god") thinks it is supposed to mean?  Besides that, the fact that it isn't clear speaks to an omniscient being NOT being the author - and that is my point here.
Yes, we had it a long time ago, but the principle still applies. It is not my own authority I appeal to. I point to the biblical authority, and rightly so since we were debating what the Bible says. And you should only care if what I say corresponds to what He says. Then my thoughts match His authority. Plus, it IS clear. To make sense of "this generation" you have to gather which generation the Author is speaking about. That was something you failed to do. You say "any generation," which is not the case.  That was my point. Unfortunately, those who judged our debates failed to take these things into consideration. 

[c] I have explained to you and others many times the meanings of slavery and that God explicitly told Israel never to treat others as they were treated in Egypt
Yes, you have said that, but your cherry picking doesn't show the whole picture. I haven't had a good debate in a while. Maybe we can debate slavery in the bible - just a thought. 
We could do, or we could debate whether God's word has a correct and clear interpretation, and what that interpretation is in regards to Eschatology. Either way, it will have to wait a few weeks. I am in the process of helping my step-son renovate a shed into a cottage, which requires building an extra room. We are also putting in a kitchen. Then there is my wife's health too, that could take a downturn at any time. So, my time is not so free at the moment. 

No prophecy is to be privately interpreted.

Unless you think the entire Bible is a prophecy, you're not addressing my point entirely. Secondly, people do it all the time, don't they? You need to take that up with your fellow believers. 
Two-thirds of the Bible concerns prophecy, so it is no small matter. If you get it wrong the Bible becomes very contradictory, misunderstood and misinterpreted.

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Objective morality only applies if God exists, and morality is something Amoranemix and Ramshutu believe is relativistic because it is continually "evolving," although Ramshutu tries to mask it as an objective "imperative." That to him seems to only apply to "the group" that adopts some standard of right or wrong, when it is obvious other groups disagree and preach the opposite standard. So, the objectivity is up in the air. The identity is lost when neither group is wrong yet both preach the opposite. 
For the record, you're claiming objective morality only applies if God exists while also highlighting evidence against objective morality.

[a]Moral values that are qualitative need a measurement too. [b]There has to be something we compare something else to or against, and in the case of morals, [c] an unchanging standard, something that is real but abstract.[d] If you don't have a real, unchanging "right" or "good" (the standard of comparison), then how can you say this moral value is better than another?
[a] Ok.
[b] Ok.
[c] why must our reference be unchanging? 
[d] We don't need a fixed reference - we need a stable reference. That reference can be arbitrary and mutable yet this in no way prevents comparison. The problem you decry is not a real problem. 

Why is what you believe truer than what I think?
It's not a matter of belief versus belief as you keep suggesting. It is a matter of  belief combined with data demonstrating if that belief is correct. Someone who believes rape, genocide, etc., is a moral good is refuted by evidence to the contrary. So, 'how do we decide who is right' is answered by "facts of reality". 

Maybe we can debate slavery in the bible - just a thought. 
So, my time is not so free at the moment. 

No worries. Family comes first. Let me know when you have more time if you're interested.
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Sorry for the delay - I just saw this post.

[a] This answer is so incomplete it is wrong. Its true some god concepts contradict and cannot be true at the same time. [b] However, not all god concepts are mutually exclusive and [c] they could be true at the same time. [d] Additionally, there could be one god ...or no gods. If your reasoning for the existence of the Christian god is 'no other option is logically possible', you're in for a rude awakening, my friend.
[a] Are you saying that the 'gods' of the New Age Movement are the same God of Scripture?
No to all.

I believe they are contradictory to the Judeo-Christian God
I don't care what you believe - I care what you can demonstrate through argument and evidence. "No other god is logically possible because this one is my favorite" isn't a logical argument or evidence.

Just working within your paradigm, it could be a deistic god and your god are one and the same...bam - nows there's 2 god concepts that are true at the same time. 

Two contrary things cannot logically both be true at the same time.  

I agree, but this is not a refutation of my point.

More to the point, which is it? It can only be one or the other. How would you know there is no God?
My position isn't "there is no god". My position is closer to "For what rational reason should I believe that?". Fallacious answers** equate to "none". 

**'How would you know there is no god' is shifting the burden.

I recognize my limitations to an extent. That is why I see the necessity in God setting the record straight.
The question was how do you know your belief in god is not a manufactured meaning, and your answer is literally using your belief to prop up your belief. Pulling yourself up by your bootstraps only works in cartoons. XD


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PGA2.0 1035 to FLRW
Einstein was not an expert on the biblical God. He failed to understand that a just Judge - God - must address evil.
You again omitted the reference moral standard to avoid clarity (Einstein's friend).
I am confident Einstein realised that God has been failing to address evil as much as all the other nonexistent gods.

How does one find the debates of a particular member ?
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Thanks

PGA2.0  228
Majority view? Is that what you base right upon? That is an appeal to the people or argumentum ad populum. It is based on the false notion that something is true just because the majority accepts it as true.[65] And what are such laws by the majority based upon can be an appeal to emotion? Nazi Germany's persecution of the Jews was both of those, IMO. They villainized the Jews, then passed laws expressing that bias. Were those laws just? No!
I remember in [a] our discussion on DDO that you criticized my morality and all [b] you could present as an alternative was an even worse one.
[65] No, it isn't. If ludofl3x is like me, then he does not believe what you want him to believe. He merely believes in reality.
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[a] You bet I criticized your morality.
[b] So you say, without a context.

Worse, in whose opinion?[527] Why should I value your subjective opinion? Whenever you speak of better and worse, you must have some fixed standard for it to have meaning.[528a] If the meaning is changing, then how can you say it is better??? [528b]

It is not a majority view; it is just your opinion that coincides with  ludofl3x's.[529] Why should I trust yours or his view of moral reality?[530] Are you an authority and expert in moral reality, or is this another appeal to authority - yours?[531]

We all believe in reality. The question is, do you or he correctly represent it in regards to morality?[532] No, you can't provide a fixed, unchanging standard and best to compare better or worse to.[533] You make it up or adopt someone else's relative standard. Why are they right?[533b] You give not strong arguments that they are. You think that just because you can present assertions, that makes them reasonable or true.[534]
[b] The meaning is clear without context.
[527] Worse in your opinion. You were so embarrassed about your morality that you refused to compare it with mine. When I tried to discuss its potential problems, your keyboard became unresponsive.
[528a] I didn't understand the part where you explained when you were planning on proving that.
[528b] For (probably not) the last time, here is an explanation. Pay attention please.
Better is referring to a standard of quality. That standard is usually not explicated, just like standards of beauty are not explicated, just like you systematically omit to mention your reference moral standard. That such standard of quality does not meet your criteria is irrelevant. That the moral standards of atheists do not meet your criteria does not undermine atheism (or if it does, you should have explained how a long time ago). All you do is complain that the standard of quality used by others does not meet <PGA2.0's personsal list of criteria he believes a standard of quality should meet>. Why should anyone care about your personal criteria ?

So, you dislike my better and I dislike yours or God's. Hence we are still where we started. You, God, I and everyone else has their opinion on what is better. The only differences being that you, I and some of those others actually exist and that God is the mightiest. If God were to (ab)use his might to impose his (no doubt self-serving) standard of best on everyone, then that would be the deciding factor, but he does not do that for some reason. Hence, the decicive factor is that God's existence cannot be established.

So, that leaves you with nothing better to do than complain about reality again.

[529] What are you talking about ?
[530] Again, hypothetically speaking, if you were to prefer belief in reality over belief in God, then you should because my moral views are consistent with reality because I base my worldview on reason and evidence.
[531] Compared to you, I am an expert on this aspect of reality, indeed.
[532] I have yet to see good reason to revise my position.
[533] Again, neither can you. Again, you assume without justification that doing so is a requirement. (“Otherwise <bad things>” is not a justification.)
[533b] Right about what ? That question may make sense from your perspective, but it does not from mine. Your ambiguous questions seem to rely on a combination of your worldview and mine that doesn't make sense and then you expect me to justify that hybrid to you. I dont' believe there are true standards.
[534] Is that a fact or just your personal opinion ?

PGA2.0  228
So, if you want just laws they must be based on what is actually right regardless of how many people like such laws.[66] Abortion is just morally wrong, except were there is no choice in that the woman and unborn will die in the case of a tubal pregnancy. At least one can be saved. It should not be the woman's right to CHOOSE to kill another INNOCENT human being.[67] If humans are to be treated equally under the law, that does not give some humans the 'right' to decide whether or not an innocent human being is killed.
[66] Also don't forget, just laws must be based on what is actually right regardless of whether an invisible sky magician likes them.
[67] That is what you claim and it may even be what your god claims, but morality should not be decided by the opinion of a minority or their god.
PGA2.0 1046
[66] You miss the point. Do you have such a standard - the actual right? Demonstrate it so.
[67] Like Nazi Germany, a majority makes killing innocent Jews right, just like a majority as with Roe v Wade makes it right with abortion?[535a] For you, there is no such thing as an objective measure and final reference. You make it up as you go. What you left out is nothing more than an appeal to the people/argumentum ad populum fallacy.[535b]
What a ridiculous fallacious argument you are making.[536]
[66] You are mistaken, for I did not miss the point. I merely made a different one, one you ignored without justification. I do not claim to have an actually right standard and yet you ask to me to demonstrate I have one ! You, on the other hand, keep claiming you have such standard after having repeatedly been unable to demonstrate you have one.
[535a] You are appealing to my personal disapproval. “Surely Amoranemix, you dislike what the Nazis did. So what you say cannot be true.” So on the one hand, preferences are irrelevant (except yours and your god's) and on the other hand I should modify my worldview because of my preferences. “If what you say is true, then the Nazis' wickedness is just a matter of opinion. Surely that would be bad?” Your position is therefore inconsistent. You are wrong about the former, for preferences are an important part of reality. What the Nazis did, did not depend on some hypothetical standard that you crave, but on their preferences. Therefore skeptics believe in the existence of preferences. That does not imply, contrary to what you keep suggesting, that skeptics like it that preferences are so important or like the Nazis' preferences. Skeptics believe in reality the way it is, with all its inconveniences. This thread is about the way reality is, not about they way it should be. Whether a world with the standard of your dreams would be better (according to itself) is off topic. Go start a thread about whether if God existed we would be living in a better world.
[535b] Indeed. I prefer to avoid fallacies, but I don't see how that is relevant.
[536] Dude, I didn't even make an argument. That illustrates one of your problems : there is nothing really wrong with the skeptic's position, so you are reduced criticizing your straw men of it.

Indeed. Donald Trump placed many liberal judges in the Supreme High Court, one of them just two weeks before the elections. That is what republican presidents do and that is why now a majority of the Supreme High Court members are liberals.
PGA2.0 1046
You don't know what you speak of. Donald Trump did not place liberal but conservative justices on the Supreme Court. You have everything backwards.
Dude, I was being ironic. It was consistent with what you said though.

So, it is the OT law that was wrong. Were the Ten Commandments, being in the OT, wrong too ?
PGA2.0 1047
The OT law was not wrong. Homosexual relationships were identified as wrong in both. The punishments for these actions have changed for the covenant believer. [ . . . ]
The morality of homosexuality has always been immoral GM. But the punishment for it is stoning according to the Old Testament and something else according to the New Testament. Now they can't both be correct. Either the punishment is stoning or it is not. It can't be both stoning and not stoning, so which is right, the Old or the New Testament ?

[a] That the punishment of sin is death, does not imply sin requires death as punishment. What is, does not necessarily need to be. [b] That God prefers death being the punishment for sin to satisfy his personal, [c] might-makes-right justice, does not imply it has to be that way.
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[a] That was the purpose of faith and trust in God and His provision of the sacrificial system in both covenants.[537] God is holy and pure. Breaking His commandments required a penalty.
[b] God is just and good. A good Judge will not neglect punishing injustice.
[c] Might makes right only when the thing that is done is right. God always does the right.
[537] If you say that the purpose of faith and trust in God and His provision of the sacrificial system in both covenants is that the punishment for sin is death, then you say word salad.
[b] Indeed, God is all these seemingly praiseworthy things, but only according to himself and those infatuated with him, which you omitted to mention to promote confusion (the skeptic's enemy). There are plenty of villains who are also just and good according to themselves and no, these villains do not meet your preferred criteria, but they do theirs and of their fans. That a good judge should not neglect punishing unjustice can be used as an excuse to justify any punishment when it is the 'good' judge who decides what constitutes injustice.
[c] You assert that God always does what is right, as if asserting something makes it true. It does not. You must back up your assertion. Go ahead.

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@Ramshutu
Post 1300, Part 1:

You seem to be mostly ignoring the key points of my arguments to circle back to the same logical errors I already pointed out.
And you are mostly ignoring the critical points in my arguments with this post. 

Your argument below is hard to answer because your assumptions about morality need a lot of unpacking to pin down the faults. Your view is similar to this one. Your position is also called Utilitarianism (the least harm or most good argument), and in severe forms, Negative Utilitarianism. While I believe it is wrong to hurt or harm someone for fun, I question whether your definition of harm would be the same as someone else's collective idea(l) in another group, which brings up the question of moral identity or the actual truth claim. You see, others may not value your group's "need" to survive, only theirs. So, they justify killing (murdering) your group. While I consider that harming someone is wrong, I have different reasons for my judgment, not an evolutionary one. The question between two groups, two individuals, two societies, becomes which view or group bear the true meaning? Compounding the problem within a group, some person or subgroup can threaten the larger group. Many splitter or subgroups oppose what the majority or greater collective thinks of harm or who SHOULD survive in the greater society. Does the majority make right? Is that your basis? If there is nothing the moral good is fixed to, then it is all relative. You're then begging the question of why your definition of harm is the truth, or actual harm, or even if it matters. For instance, what happens when the collective group can no longer feed itself? Or what happens when a mutant individual does not look upon the whole combined group as desirable and has the means to control or subvert it? Or what happens when such an individual mutant does not value survival? Nature doesn't care about what one group or one individual thinks. Things happen. 

I will reiterate my position to prevent the argument driving off the rails, and try to bring everything back to my central points:

Organisms that evolve as part of a society need to evolve some sort of mechanism to prevent individual *behaviour harming everyone’s collective survival by harming the group. Without this, individual selfishness prevents the group from succeeding and thus harms individual survival chances.
This paragraph begs many questions, one of which is the agency for acquiring the desire or ability to survive. Jerry Coyne said that "evolution offers a lesson," we are "the product of blind and impersonal evolutionary forces.p. xvii. In part, what he means by that is natural selection, "the mechanism for most …evolutionary change" (p. 3) is not selecting as such, things just happen. You see, natural selection has no ability and no personal traits, yet evolutionists give it all sorts, such as needs, as you did above. Again, things just happen, and why you think anything would be sustained by blind chance happenstance is beyond me. "Good" genes are those that lead to a higher rate of survival. It is another way of saying that what survives is "good."

Another question it begs is what defines harm in the survival of one group over another since human beings are the sum total of groups representing morality and often each to its own as can be demonstrated over and over in human history, and as you point out below in your post?

And you assume the collective survival of the group is everyone's ideal in a meaningless universe. It appears so far in your closed box universe only we humans give value to that which the universe doesn't give a hoot about and never did.
In other words, [a] I have a plausible, technical, naturalistic explanation of how humans can acquire a sense of good and bad, and [b] exhibit a conscience without the existence of God.
Again, denying God leaves nothing outside the close system, the material universe, so we are left to our subjective, relative selves or ethical subjectivism. You manufactured your system of ethics based on a group's idea of harm. Greg Koukle lists seven things that a relativist cannot do. How does one reform a significant group like China that wants to harm or kill some citizens, its neighbours that oppose it, then focus on the rest of the world? It is not looking out for your survival. It wants to harming, suppressing, or eliminating smaller fringe groups and those who disagree? It is "into" world dominance in Xi's five and ten year plans. 

[a] This is another way of saying what survives is good; what does not is bad. If the group that likes killing all Jews survives, they are good. (see I. What are "objective moral values?" starting at "If objective moral values exist,..." to the end of the paragraph)

You throw around terms such as good and bad that have no fixed address. They change as people's views change. That changing moral values can be demonstrated throughout human history.

[b] The part about exhibiting a conscience without first the existence of God is pure speculation in the evolutionary chain, and wishful thinking on your part. In the causal tree, how does something not alive or conscious acquire consciousness, to begin with? I'm asking the question. Technically, I'd like to know. You speculate and assume it can. Is that the simplest explanation? How about from a necessary conscious being, other contingent beings arise. What do we witness; conscious beings coming from other conscious beings! It is logical. Where do we ever witness conscious beings coming from non-conscious things?

Not only this, as James W. Sire points out from a naturalistic perspective, "Human beings are complex machines whose personality is a function of highly complex chemicals and physical properties not yet understood." (P. 78) How do you get morals from the way one biological bag of atoms reacts as opposed to another? What is good or bad about how our chemical properties react? You do one thing; I do another. Nothing is morally good or bad about it; things just happen. 

Once again, I invite you to make sense of morality without an actual objective, an unchanging reference point to compare/measure goodness or righteousness to or against. If there is no best, what does better or good mean? How can you say you have reached something better? Better than what? What basis do you have for morality? A descriptive behaviour does not equal a prescriptive ought, as Hume pointed out. What is the true value? Which group holds it if values are relative to the group and two groups conflict? Survival? For which opposing group? How did they get morals if all humans are is a predetermined biological bag of atoms? How does what "is" (a behaviour) determine what ought to be? What "is" is descriptive and quantitative, based on the physical. What "ought" to be is prescriptive and qualitative, mind-based on the abstract.  

Next, as I said before, one group, the Nazis, believe killing all Jews was beneficial to them. They did not LIKE them. How does what a group likes (taste or preference) make something good or right; what ought to be done? It does not. It makes it doable, nothing more.  

My thought about your speculation on the existence of God:
To deny God, you must first have a God (the irony: you can't deny God without first affirming Him). In rejecting God, you deny ultimate meaning, but you can't have that, so you make up meaning, each to his/her ideas of what that should look like. You make up meaning in your meaningless, nihilistic universe. You act as if it matters, yet it means nothing in the grand scheme of the universe. There is no grand scheme. My whole take is that your philosophy of life, your worldview, is ultimately meaningless, but you are not ready to face this fact, so you make up meaning. It gives you reassurance. You, as an unbeliever, substitute God for yourself, a little god of no ultimate significance proclaiming what is true and actual and what should be without the wisdom or knowledge to do so. Naturalism is nihilistic, yet you want things to matter, so you ply evolution with meaning, with needs and abilities it does not have. 
[a] This need to maintain balance between individual and social group is an objective imperative; as in [b] it can be objectively determined that such an imperative is necessary for those in the group to follow, can be independently constructed - [c] even intelligent spiders without human morality would be able to deduce the generalized basics of our morality based on it.
[a] That is from a naturalistic viewpoint. That is one way to examine existence but not morality.  

[b] Objectively within the group? What of opposing groups (the history of humanity)? What makes the group right? How does following an imperative make something good or right unless it is? You can't disagree about right and wrong unless there is an actual right and wrong, the truth, and in your case (above), you want to supply that meaning as "objective" while listing below you say,

"(1) good and bad are only in our heads, and (2)changes from generation to generation, group to group - as it is a learned reaction based on the social norms of a group - (3) there is no separate, objective "true" or "good" outside that; and much of it is (4) purely the arbitrary product of that learning."

No fixed objective value there, buddy. Why is what is in your head any "better" than what is in my head or any truer? You say it is not. How is that an objective basis for morality? How can you say it is true? In defining objective moral truths, you say,

"An objective morality would be [i] one everyone could agree on, anyone, regardless of culture or belief can validate is correct and true, and can be deduced independently without belief, preference; or assertion."

[i] Not quite. An objective morality would be one that existed whether or not we agree with it that IS true. How does a subjective, relative human being independently verify and deduce objective morality? It would have to be revealed by a necessary omniscient, omnibenevolent, omnipotent, immutable Being. You don't have those necessary qualities. Judging from your statement here, I think we need to identify what is meant by objective and objective morality. Here are a couple of definitions that apply:

Objective
1a: expressing or dealing with facts or conditions as perceived without distortion by personal feelings, prejudices, or interpretations,
1b: of a testlimited to choices of fixed alternatives and reducing subjective factors to a minimum,
2a: of, relating to, or being an object, phenomenon, or condition in the realm of sensible experience independent of individual thought and perceptible by all observershaving reality independent of the mind
2b: involving or deriving from sense perception or experience with actual objects, conditions, or phenomena

Objective or Absolute Morality (What is it?)

Moral objectivism may refer to:
  • Robust moral realism, the meta-ethical position that ethical sentences express factual propositions about robust or mind-independent features of the world, and that some such propositions are true.

1. Objective morality would be true. 
2. Objective morality would be independent of your "experience," needs, or whether you believed it/them or not.
3. Objective morality would have an actual best to compare the good and better to. 

[c] Not a shred of evidence for such wildly speculative assertions (as if they could deduce such things).   


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Holy shit; this thread got over 1300 posts!  This is roughly 2 posts per day since DART started.  Why are christians so passioned about christainity and why are atheists so passioned about atheism?
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@TheUnderdog
An impressive demonstration of tenacity on both sides.
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@3RU7AL
Not only that, but this thread is over 240 days old.
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@SkepticalOne
Objective morality only applies if God exists, and morality is something Amoranemix and Ramshutu believe is relativistic because it is continually "evolving," although Ramshutu tries to mask it as an objective "imperative." That to him seems to only apply to "the group" that adopts some standard of right or wrong, when it is obvious other groups disagree and preach the opposite standard. So, the objectivity is up in the air. The identity is lost when neither group is wrong yet both preach the opposite. 
For the record, you're claiming objective morality only applies if God exists while also highlighting evidence against objective morality.
I'm highlighting evidence against objective morality from any position that denies God, whether from materialism, secularism, naturalism, or atheism. As I have pointed out many times before, the Ten Commandments in their relationship to humanity (those commands that apply to human relationships rather than humanity's relationship to God) are the fixed standard that most cultures adapt to some extent. Most people believe it is wrong to kill innocent human beings, rape, steal, commit adultery, lie, covet, dishonour parents. Most human cultures have adopted these God laws to some extent. The Christian believes that deep within our being, we have an innate sense of right and wrong because God has put it there. Those who deny God somewhat suppress or mar these commands. The Hollywood culture promotes cheating in adultery, lust, sex outside of marriage, and alternative sexual relationships, to name a small list of what the Bible identifies as immoral. It promotes greed, stealing, lying, and the killing of the innocent in many of its movies, and we buy into this type of "culture."

[a]Moral values that are qualitative need a measurement too. [b]There has to be something we compare something else to or against, and in the case of morals, [c] an unchanging standard, something that is real but abstract.[d] If you don't have a real, unchanging "right" or "good" (the standard of comparison), then how can you say this moral value is better than another?
[a] Ok.
[b] Ok.
[c] why must our reference be unchanging? 
[d] We don't need a fixed reference - we need a stable reference. That reference can be arbitrary and mutable yet this in no way prevents comparison. The problem you decry is not a real problem. 

[a] I don't believe there are quantitative moral values, but that is how an atheist or naturalist would have to think by denying God. Somehow in the process of the existence of the universe matter would acquire consciousness. Somehow, the meaningless would acquire meaning for a short burst of time. 

[c] Because how would you know the actual value if two individuals, groups, cultures, or societies each said the opposite is the right or good? Which society would we be morally bound to if we lived on the boundary of two societies or countries and held dual citizenship? How could we know which society was correct in its identity of a moral value? Do we just pick and choose? We would be damned one way or the other, supposing the penalty from breaking the law of the land was death in both countries. 

[d] How do you compare two morals as both being the right one? The law of identity states that two opposing things cannot both be true simultaneously and in the same manner. So, which of the two contrasting values is true to what is the case? That is the inconsistency of your position. You believe both can be. That is relativism at its best. And speaking of best, how do you ever determine best if there is no ideal or fixed reference point? You don't, you are always on the search for it, other than by forcing your beliefs on someone else if you have the "power" to do so. If not, you are dragged along by those in power into doing their will, even though you do not believe they are "right." Right and wrong, good and evil, concerning the best, never become attainable values since they are shifting and relative. It just depends on the flavour of the month and whether you like it. Thus, in the same society, you could have many subgroups undermining the leading group, which imposes their flavour on the rest. As I said before, and as Copleston and Ravi Zacharias point out, morality without God is just preference. Some like to eat their neighbours; others like to love them. What is your preference? 

Without God, you do not have an adequate foundation for morality.

Why is what you believe truer than what I think?
It's not a matter of belief versus belief as you keep suggesting. It is a matter of  belief combined with data demonstrating if that belief is correct. Someone who believes rape, genocide, etc., is a moral good is refuted by evidence to the contrary. So, 'how do we decide who is right' is answered by "facts of reality". 
Such as what data? If Xi or Kim Jong-un (or the Democrats are demonstrating in the USA), or any number of other tyrants are in control it is a matter of obeying whatever they decree. Any opposition is squashed or made wrong by the media propaganda or the big arm of government. Your Christian values in the West are being undermined to the point that you could soon lose them. Russia, China, Iran, and other hostile actors are gearing up their subversive war on America and its Judeo-Christian "freedoms" and the Democrats are playing into their hands. 

Maybe we can debate slavery in the bible - just a thought. 
So, my time is not so free at the moment. 

No worries. Family comes first. Let me know when you have more time if you're interested.
Okay, thanks. Supplies are in short supply here in Canada and like the States (thanks to Biden and his policies) the price has skyrocketed for lumber and other commodities. I was thinking we would be finished by now. It looks like another couple of weeks before I consider something like this. 

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@SkepticalOne
[a] This answer is so incomplete it is wrong. Its true some god concepts contradict and cannot be true at the same time. [b] However, not all god concepts are mutually exclusive and [c] they could be true at the same time. [d] Additionally, there could be one god ...or no gods. If your reasoning for the existence of the Christian god is 'no other option is logically possible', you're in for a rude awakening, my friend.
[a] Are you saying that the 'gods' of the New Age Movement are the same God of Scripture?
No to all.
Logically, to all. Whether they choose to deny logic is a different matter.

I believe they are contradictory to the Judeo-Christian God
I don't care what you believe - I care what you can demonstrate through argument and evidence. "No other god is logically possible because this one is my favorite" isn't a logical argument or evidence.
What I can demonstrate would never be enough for someone who doesn't want to accept the Judeo-Christian position. The nature of many a skeptic is always another what if. 

As a Christian, I can only contend that the evidence for the Christian God is better than any other God by presenting it. The rest is up to you as to whether you believe it, so it does come down to what you are willing to believe. But along the way I can show you the inability of your belief system in making sense of almost anything. I have been trying to do this in a long, laborious way. I have to show you that your foundation, what your whole worldview rests upon, can't make sense of itself. I have to then show you how the Christian worldview has what is necessary. The rest is a matter between you and God. (^8

Just working within your paradigm, it could be a deistic god and your god are one and the same...bam - nows there's 2 god concepts that are true at the same time.
Nope. I work from a position of a God who has revealed. 

Two contrary things cannot logically both be true at the same time.  

I agree, but this is not a refutation of my point.
It is once you name another god. Two contrary gods cannot both be true from a logical standpoint, and the only God I defend is the Judeo-Christian God. If you named any other god I would go to work in showing the contrasts. 

More to the point, which is it? It can only be one or the other. How would you know there is no God?
My position isn't "there is no god". My position is closer to "For what rational reason should I believe that?". Fallacious answers** equate to "none". 
You now live as if no God exists. 

For what rational reason? That depends if you want to make sense of existence, the universe, morality, truth. A skeptic is more inclined to be noncommittal and say "I don't know." I keep inviting you to make sense of your worldview once you jettison the biblical God. 

**'How would you know there is no god' is shifting the burden.
Once you commit to "there is no God" or "God is not likely," you need to share the burden of proof. 

I recognize my limitations to an extent. That is why I see the necessity in God setting the record straight.
The question was how do you know your belief in god is not a manufactured meaning, and your answer is literally using your belief to prop up your belief. Pulling yourself up by your bootstraps only works in cartoons. XD
There is convincing evidence and in testing other worldviews, they do not have what is necessary in making sense of existence because they expose themselves as internally inconsistent. That is a logical sign that you are on the wrong path in making sense of things.  
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Okay, thanks. Supplies are in short supply here in Canada and like the States (thanks to Biden and his policies) the price has skyrocketed for lumber and other commodities. I was thinking we would be finished by now. It looks like another couple of weeks before I consider something like this. 
Why There are Now So Many Shortages (It's Not COVID)
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@PGA2.0
And you are mostly ignoring the critical points in my arguments with this post. 

I’m actually not. As I pointed out; your broad attacks fall down onto the 4 or 5 variations I outlined above. They still do - you’re just asking the same invalid question over and over, without addressing the key points - which I will show at the end.


Your view is similar to this one

You're then begging the question of why your definition of harm is the truth

“Does the majority make right? Is that your basis? If there is nothing the moral good is fixed to, then it is all relative.”


[strawman] imagine my surprise after explaining what morality is in detail, after repeatedly and explicitly stating that there is no objective moral standard, good and bad is subjective: that you come back and argue a second time that what I’m arguing does not work as an objective system.

Misrepresenting my position once can be an accident; doing so twice after explicitly being corrected suggests dishonesty.

Please review bullet #2 in the above post.

To be explicitly clear for a third time: I am not advocating any framework, I am not justifying moral decisions, I am not trying to provide a definition of “best” - I can’t, best is subjective, morality is subjective.

I am providing an objective imperative for why morality would necessarily exist as we currently experience in evolved organisms such as ourselves in order to be successful as a group.

I could make a similar argument for fear: harm to individuals from the environment or other organisms is an objective imperative that would necessitate the evolution of fear. It explains what we experience as fear, and why we are scared of certain things: but that argument is making no judgements about whether clowns or grass snakes are objectively scary.

As such, the overriding majority of your contention here is simply irrelevant as you’re attacking an argument I’m not making. I have clipped out all parts of your reply here that are predicated on this strawman.



“This paragraph begs many questions, one of which is the agency for acquiring the desire or ability to survive.”


Note: you mean “raises the question”. “Begging the question means the conclusion of an argument is being assumed in the premise” as none of the things you raise are part of my conclusion, there is no question to beg.


“natural selection has no ability and no personal traits, yet evolutionists give it all sorts, such as needs, as you did above.”

[Strawman]: evolution has no traits, no agency, no motivation: my argument neither depends, requires or argues it does. You’re taking the metaphors I use to convey the process, applying them literally, then attacking this literal interpretation.

Organisms reproduce with changes that effect the subsequent generations ability to reproduce in their current environment. As a result, while mutations are random, there is a non-random pruning of these changes that causes a statistical bias towards acquiring traits that improve reproductive success over multiple generations. This is often summarized as evolution “causing” things, because it’s simply easier to describe that way.

That you have attacked the way I have conveyed evolution, rather than what I am conveying; when you clearly have some understanding of how the process is supposed to work can only interpreted as disingenuous.



Again, things just happen, and why you think anything would be sustained by blind chance happenstance is beyond me. 


[argument from incredulity] I have added a fairly succinct explanation above. Indeed, evolution itself is best described as a mechanism by which random chance with non random pruning can lead to non random outcomes. (But for some strange regions no one ever talks about the non-random aspects of evolution)



The part about exhibiting a conscience without first the existence of God is pure speculation in the evolutionary chain

How do you get morals from the way one biological bag of atoms reacts as opposed to another? 

[Argument from incredulity] My first reply, and the post you are replying to explicitly explains how. Your incredulity is not a valid argument.

My conclusion is based on a variety of observed facts, which I have brought together using a logical argument, it’s self consistent, it has extraordinary explanatory power, is consistent with processes such as evolution that we can observe.

So it’s not really speculation as much as informed hypothesis, that is able to fully explain reality.

This is actually almost identical to what you’re doing: you’re using the facts and logic to try and extrapolate an explanation; so your position is literally no better.

Indeed, your position has no actual explanatory power (it’s mostly a tautology - god made morality because god needed to make morality), it isn’t predicated in any physical observable processes and, as I showed in my post above - isn’t even self consistent.

The idea that my explanation can’t be accepted because it’s speculative, and yet yours is fine whilst being no better, is [hypocritical].




Once again, I invite you to make sense of morality without an actual objective. 


I’ve done that twice. That morality is a subjective evolved response that allows us to learn and respond to various anti-group behaviour; makes sense of what we experience as morality.

It allows us explain - objectively A why we have morals, it explains why we experience them the way we do, it explains the moral zeitgeist; it explains how Nazis can be done with the holocaust; why people’s moral judgements change dependent on their group, and whether the person being harmed is in or out of the group.

Indeed, a subjective evolved morality is the only way to make sense of what we experience; as all objective explanations end up being incoherent to some degree.

What you’re doing is [Begging the question] - presupposing that morality must be describable objectively is assuming your own conclusion.

You go on about this for many paragraphs. Bullet 2 in my above covers this in its entirety.



My thought about your speculation on the existence of God:
To deny God, you must first have a God (the irony: you can't deny God without first affirming Him). 


[non sequitor] to deny god you must first have a description or concept of God. You don’t have to affirm it.

To deny Darth Vader exists you do not have to affirm him.



My whole take is that your philosophy of life, your worldview, is ultimately meaningless. Naturalism is nihilistic, yet you want things to matter.


Let’s ignore the wild [strawman] introduced by you putting several paragraphs worth of words in my mouth.

You’re making the same class of error I pointed out in #1 in my previous post: Confusing subjective with not existing.

Humanity could wink out of existence tomorrow. That can can both matter to me, and to us, but not matter at all in the universal scale of things. A dollar has no intrinsic and objective value; but it does to us.


[a] The [objective moral imperative] is from a naturalistic viewpoint. That is one way to examine existence but not morality.  


[argument by assertion \ no true Scotsman] simply saying I’m wrong and that what I’m describing is not true morality, is fallacious.

"An objective morality would be [i] one everyone could agree on, anyone, regardless of culture or belief can validate is correct and true, and can be deduced independently without belief, preference; or assertion."

[i] Not quite. An objective morality would be one that existed whether or not we agree with it that IS true. 


This is logically incoherent with everything you’ve said up to this point.

If Good and bad were objective, they would exist outside of our minds and our opinions, it would be a real thing - like trees or fusion. True simply means “in accordance with reality.”, so by definition of morality could be shown to be objective if would be shown to be true.

Now, to show it’s objective; you can’t rely on a your belief in a book, faith, trust: that causes that morality to anchor its truth in your opinion. We have to tether morality to something outside our human opinion or thought: IE: if morality were objective, we would be able to derive it without the use of books or faith, and it would be possible to independently validate it without using any of your opinions or assumptions. That’s what being objective entails. 

If you can’t do that; then all you have is loud assertions that it’s is objective; but it’s really your brain that is making your morality real - and is thus is not objective.

So by definition all the things I said must be true of an objective morality: and given that to prove it exists would intrinsically be demonstrating it true - it’s not unreasonable that it would be like other incontrovertible facts - that are just absorbed in to general consciousness and assumed true - like the earth being spherical, atoms and Germs existing. Obviously not precluding crazies - but if proven real - there would not be any source of serious contention.

This is completely refuted by the utter sh*tshow of moral disagreement at every level by everyone - including in the same faith believing the same thing. This is covered in my previous posts.



How does a subjective, relative human being independently verify and deduce objective morality? It would have to be revealed by a necessary omniscient.....


[argument by assertion] What a load of asserted nonsense; no rationalization, no logic, no justification; just assertion.

Why could we not verify morality the same way we can validate electricity? Or mathematics? Or the existence of other planets? There is literally no rational justification for suggesting we need a deity to reveal objective morality should it exist.

Worse, ignoring my previous posts (that it would still be subjective), if a deity came and revealed morality to us - you may have a point.

You’re arguing that this happened, but in reality you simply have a book that purports it happened and for which you believe. This kinda sets up a [circular argument] that you use the existence of objective morality to support the existence of your deity, but at the same time you use your deity to justify the existence of objective morality.



[c] Not a shred of evidence for such wildly speculative assertions (as if they could deduce such things).   


I actually explained why in the post you’re replying to.

The evolutionary imperative is objectively determinable - meaning any amoral analysis of human evolution would recognize that there is a selective pressure to generate some constraining influence: and the nature of that influence, how it would appear, and how it would work could largely be deduced from analysis objectively.

This is as opposed to your wild speculation above.



Despite all the fallacies above what is interesting is what you didn’t argue:

- You made no attempt to try and contrast reality with what I’m proposing. (Ie: show where my argument deviates from what we can both agree is real)

- you made no attempt to demonstrate why there must be an absolute Good, or a best.

- You made no attempt to assess or critique the evolutionary explanation in terms of known evolutionary mechanisms. (IE: show my argument is inconsistent)


Make no mistake. Your rebuttal is like arguing nuclear physics is false, without ever talking about atoms; without talking about what nuclear physics predicts or calculates; simply that it cannot explain an effect you can’t even show even exists.
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Because how would you know the actual value if two individuals, groups, cultures, or societies each said the opposite is the right or good? 
How do you compare two morals as both being the right one?
This has been answered. Any person or group which holds genocide, rape, eating their neighbor, etc. as a moral good is demonstrably wrong. These things are not good for individual humans and, by extension, humanity. This is verified by objective reality. Repeating your questions (as though they weren't answered) makes it seem as though you're not comprehending my answers or simply ignoring them. Feel free to ask sincere questions if need be.

I don't care what you believe - I care what you can demonstrate through argument and evidence. "No other god is logically possible because this one is my favorite" isn't a logical argument or evidence.
What I can demonstrate would never be enough for someone who doesn't want to accept the Judeo-Christian position.

This is a unreasonable rationalization, Peter. Why should I, or anyone, want to accept what has not been demonstrated - whether that be objective morality or the deity claimed to be the basis of it? Besides, wanting to believe in the Christian god didn't stop me from finding my reasons for my belief being insufficient. 

I did not see anything else in your most recent posts which had not been previously answered or that deserved any more attention.  I think it is safe to say, this topic has been well explored and repetition is not going to get us anywhere.  Let me know if/when you'd like to have a debate on Slavery in the Bible or anything else. 





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@Ramshutu
And you are mostly ignoring the critical points in my arguments with this post. 

I’m actually not. As I pointed out; your broad attacks fall down onto the 4 or 5 variations I outlined above. They still do - you’re just asking the same invalid question over and over, without addressing the key points - which I will show at the end.
We discuss the philosophical nature of beginnings, specifically regarding morality. Your worldview without God is laced with naturalistic philosophical assumptions and fallacies. They include the naturalistic fallacy and many others. Let us make no mistake about it; neither you, I, nor any other human being was around to witness what you claim took place, so you assume just as much as the Christian, or deist, in how and why we are here and what took place. We were not here to witness the beginning of the universe or how morality originated. You do as much assuming as you claim I do, without justifiable evidence to back up your claims. I will get to every one of your claimed fallacies (on my part) in other posts, but I must address the heart of your argument in this one.

Naturalistic Fallacy: "The naturalistic fallacy is an informal logical fallacy which argues that if something is ‘natural’ it must be good. It is closely related to the is/ought fallacy – when someone tries to infer what ‘ought’ to be done from what ‘is’."

What you do is take a term like the HARM and NEED and attach a moral value to it by making it SEEM like the reason is survival. As I pointed out in my previous post, evolution does not have the human personified traits or values you give it.   

Anthropomorphism (also known as: personification):
"The attributing of human characteristics and purposes to inanimate objects, animals, plants, or other natural phenomena, or to gods. This becomes a logical fallacy when used within the context of an argument."

"The attribution of human emotions or characteristics to inanimate objects or to nature; for example, angry clouds; a cruel wind."

***

I also like the idea attributed to G. E. Moore in the same article cited above, "there might be ‘ethical facts’ from which we can make value claims and which are different from ordinary facts." Ordinary facts would be the quantitative kind. Ethical facts would be the qualitative kind. 

Merriam-Webster: "Naturalistic fallacy: the process of defining ethical terms (as the good) in nonethical descriptive terms (as happiness, pleasure, and utility)."
And I might add, harm.

Your OP 1290 claimed: 
We evolved as part of a social mammals. Evolution of individuals dependent on social groups is a balance between individual and group needs. To prevent individual needs overriding the group and [a] harming everyone’s collective chances of survival; individuals need to be motivated to prevent themselves or others from harming the group.

To this end; what we experience as “morality” is the learned emotional response that helps drives behaviour to conform to the groups ideals, and want to punish others that don’t. 

That is an objective imperative that leads to learned subjective moral systems and does not necessitate the need for any deity.
And Post 1300:
Organisms that evolve as part of a society need to evolve some sort of mechanism to prevent individual behaviour harming everyone’s collective survival by harming the group. Without this, individual selfishness prevents the group from succeeding and thus harms individual survival chances.
[a] Thus, harm bad, prevention good!  

You believe that morality is nothing more than an evolutionary learned trait that helps us survive. This is the is/ought fallacy, made famous by the skeptic David Hume.

The Is/Ought Fallacy: "The is/ought fallacy is when statements of fact (or ‘is’) jump to statements of value (or ‘ought’), without explanation. First discussed by Scottish philosopher, David Hume, he observed a range of different arguments where writers would be using the terms ‘is’ and ‘is not’ and suddenly, start saying ‘ought’ and ‘ought not’."

What in effect you do is you describe a behaviour, something observed (harm), and then attach a value to it (what should or ought to be). Of necessity, your system of thought (i.e., your worldview) would derive morality from something that is and that somehow acquired consciousness. Suddenly, the evolutionary process begins! Thus, scaling back to the Universe that somehow began to exist (the root cause of what you call morality), you eventually get, billions and billions of year in the future, conscious beings capable of what you might call morality but from your starting point is nothing more than preference. There is nothing good or bad about what is; it just is.     

Post 1301:
"1.) Morality cannot be subjective because it exists. [a]

[b] I explain in detail why morality is subjective, and you then assert it must be objective because we have the concepts good and bad, and a conscience.

This argument has three critical problems:

  • Good, bad, our conscience are all part of what morality is; thus your argument is that as good, bad and our conscience exist - they must be driven by something objective. This is a ridiculously obtuse non sequitur. 
  • It utterly fails to address any of the ways in which morality is clearly and unambiguously subjective - I listed many cases, especially ones in the Bible, Simply ignoring all the vast evidence that disagrees with you is not intellectually honest.
  • You are asserting that because those things exist, it requires morality to be objective. Recall, my entire argument provides a technical explanation of how these things can specifically exist without morality being objective - so you have ignored a second under pinning part of my argument that pre-rebutted this point.
[a] I don't like the way you paraphrase and misrepresent my argument below the point. 

[b] You did not explain why "morality" was subjective but why your or others personal or group "feelings" were subjective. As I said before, and stick to, morality has to be objective because you have to have a moral best or fixed starting point to compare moral values against. You can't leap from as is to an ought. Who care what you "feel" or "like." Hitler liked to kill Jews. He felt they were subhuman. I explained elsewhere, as identified by Gordon Clarke and cited by Ronald Nash, what is objective is true. Truth does not change. You claimed that what you call moral changes and is subjective. Thus, how is it true? What is objective is fact/truth. How can two opposing moral views both be true and what is your source for this truth? Why, it is one group as opposed to another group, and what the one group believes is harm makes morals for that group, or so you believe. What in fact it does is make something doable by the might of the group. And here we have what is also another fallacy on your part, the appeal fallacy in its various kinds, of which you use many.  

The Appeal Fallacy: "A common form of fallacy is, rather than to present an objective argument that stands on its own legs, makes some form of appeal, pleading with the listeners to accept a point without further questioning."

The problems with subjective viewpoints and not being able to sufficiently justify truth, which you do, is that you don't demonstrate what is necessary for morality --> truth and necessity through a fixed, unchanging reference point. For instance, you say:

Post 1300:
"My framework provides an 1) objective explanation of almost all facets of human behaviour."
Then you say immediately after:
"However 1) this morality is inherently subjective - good and bad are 2) only in our heads, and 3)changes from generation to generation, group to group - as it is a learned reaction based on the social norms of a group - there is 1) no separate, objective “true” or “good” outside that; and much of 4) it is purely the arbitrary product of that learning." 
1) It is not objective (i.e., not personal feelings or opinions, representing facts; mind-independent propositions that are true) in the sense that it independently applies to everyone,  only to the group. And if morality is inherently subjective, how is it objective? I see your view as internally inconsistent. And this largely subjective opinion on morality is what we witness, one subjective group harming and warring over another group on a difference of opinion over what is right or good or "moral."
2) Why should I care what is in your subjective head, especially if it is different from what is in mine, unless there is a fixed and unchanging standard that I can know the difference? Truth is mental, just like morality, but it is not dependent on any one human being or the collective. It is dependent on what is the case, whether in quantitatively or qualitatively values.
3) Which begs how you can know which is the actual case. You don't have one, so why SHOULD I believe your view? No consistent reason that your morals are any better than anyone else from where you start from. So, don't tell me that what you believe is good or bad unless it is the case, universally, which you can't. Who are you to tell me the difference with your subjectivity?
4) Yes, your view is arbitrary. In fact, in Post 1307 I pointed out that you as a subjective being do not have what is necessary for objective morality in response to what you said:

YOU: "An objective morality would be [i] one everyone could agree on, anyone, regardless of culture or belief can validate is correct and true, and can be deduced independently without belief, preference; or assertion."

ME: [i] Not quite. An objective morality would be one that existed whether or not we agree with it, that IS true. How does a subjective, relative human being independently verify and deduce objective morality? It would have to be revealed by a necessary omniscient, omnibenevolent, omnipotent, immutable Being. You don't have those necessary qualities.  
***


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@Ramshutu
Continuing with you first point (1), you said "This argument has three critical problems:"
  • [a] Good, bad, our conscience are all part of what morality is; thus your argument is that as good, bad and our conscience exist - they must be driven by something objective. This is a ridiculously obtuse non sequitur. 
  • [b] It utterly fails to address any of the ways in which morality is clearly and unambiguously subjective - [c] I listed many cases, especially ones in the Bible, Simply ignoring all the vast evidence that disagrees with you is not intellectually honest.
  • [d] You are asserting that because those things exist, it requires morality to be objective. Recall, my entire argument provides a technical explanation of how these things can specifically exist [e] without morality being objective - so you have ignored a second under pinning part of my argument that pre-rebutted this point.

[a] Oh no, it follows; a necessarily moral objective, not a group preference. Truth is objective. Truth never changes, thus eternal. Truth is independent of human minds since the object exists whether or not you do. The object is a fact. Therefore, it is not dependent on your mind or mine. Truth requires a mind. Show otherwise if you think not. In the quantitative, it is generally agreed, the universe exists independent of human beings. In the qualitative, the fact is not physical. 2+2=4 is a fact that does not depend on your mind, nor mine. The number 2 is not a physical property but an abstract one. Is there a time when 2+2 equals something other than four concerning physical objects? Also, how would you know the "good" or "bad" without comparing it to the "best;" the fact?
[b] What you view as moral is nothing more than selective personal and group preference. What makes something liked or desired moral unless there is a fixed and final (absolute) reference point? I'm asking a question. You just draw good and bad from mid-air and call it such, while someone else, some other group, calls it the opposite. Who is right? You don't have a right, no fixed address. 
[c] I have yet to address this part of your posts. You assail and ad hominem my character instead of giving me a chance to address those arguments. 
[d] I presume you are speaking of the Ten Commandments that apply to humanity's relation with itself? I am arguing that God's existence gives the objective requirements for objective morality to these qualities, whereas your subjective viewpoint does not provide them. I can give a technical explanation too. C.S. Lewis in Mere Christianity called it the Tao and identified it in all major societies/cultures of the past and present. Is there a culture that does not view killing innocent human babies for fun as good/right? 
[e]  No, I have not ignored it. I have addressed it. What you call morals is nothing more than personal and group preference unless there is an objective, fact-based best to compare moral qualities. You have admitted you don't have one, and you arbitrarily make one up on your (or your group's) subjective feelings about your (or their) subjective ideas on harm. I pointed out to either you or someone else that abortion is never morally right unless there is no option to save at least one life that would have been lost otherwise, that of the mother/woman. Since the unborn would be too immature to live outside the womb at its particular stage of development, killing it to save the mother/woman would be necessary. Taking the life of the unborn because of financial or other needs or desires (like not wanting it) is never right. Yet, recent abortion stats show that one of those two reasons comprises most abortions in America. What the mother/woman does is dehumanize and diminish the innocent human worth of the unborn.  


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@Ramshutu
Post 1301, continued:
2.) You are confused as to what subjective morality is.
No, I am not. I am delving into what is necessary for morality and your subjective OPINIONS do not justify calling it moral unless it is. What is moral has to be based on what is truly right and good. Making it up just makes it preferable. 


Am I morally okay with [bad thing]?

The answer is irrelevant.

[a] The question is not whether we feel that things are good or bad - [b] it’s whether the concept of good and bad are products of our mind, and thus have [c] no true value outside of them; [d] or whether good and bad are objective external things that exist outside of our ability to feel them. 
[a] I agree with you there. 

[b] Of course they are mind dependent, but are our minds the necessary ones for objective truth? I say no.

[c] If something is not objectively true then is it true at all? You are making up a subjective value that depends on you and others who think like you and calling it morally good or bad. That is where we differ. While I point to something eternal to myself or yourself, I point to a Mind. I point to a Mind that is necessary and eternal. You point to contingent minds that make things up. 

[d] If they are not independent objectively external things then what makes your "truth" truer than my opposing truth? You jokey around truth as if it is subjective.  

I have argued, and justified why I think it’s valid to conclude there is no “true” best.
Why should I value your subjective opinion? No good reason based on where your starting point is. 

Your response through your entire first play, and the bill of the second can really be summarized as:

“there must be a true best, because otherwise, how can there be a true best”.

This is just incoherent circular reasoning.
Nope, my entire first play is that true or actual truth is based on an objectively omniscient, omnibenevolent, immutable, eternal necessary Being who is greater than our thinking and who has revealed what is true. My Ace beats your two of Spades, for I have what is needed for and makes sense of morality. You do not; only think you do. Your subjective opinion is not an authority I can justify or trust as "knowing" based on a materialistic, naturalistic framework where blind chance happenstance is at play. Jerry Coyne and many others admit as much. That framework unravels with introspection. It is inconsistent with what we witness in that "morality" as you call it, has no true identity, just subjective feelings based on what is, not what should be (except where it jives with God's revelation). The identity changes between individuals and groups as to what is right, making the "right" redundant, nothing but a power play that you are playing at outmaneuvering me.  
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I have the impression you have again begun to forget answering questions.


PGA2.0  228 to Tradesecret
I agree with you 100%. I would argue that what atheists call morality is their 'moral' preference, their likes and dislikes.[68] They impose those on others by laws.[69] But what is good or right they have no ideal or fixed standard for, thus you are again correct, they borrow from a system of thought that does.[70] We as Christians have a solid foundation for right and wrong, they do not. We can justify our worldview in this area, they can't.[71]
I don't entirely agree with Tradesecret. That atheism would have to borrow from other worldviews, implies it is a worldview itself, in which case it can have it's own morality.[*]
[68] Again, likes and dislikes alone do not make something moral or immoral.
[69] Atheists aren't the only ones who do that.
[70] So you claim, but can you prove that ?
[71] Corrections : Christians believe they have a solid foundation and Christians believe they can justify their worldview in this area.
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[*] It can't unless an atheist can show they have that exclusive fixed, unchanging, objective reference point.[538] You have not shown they do.

As for a worldview, as I pointed out before, atheists answer the same ultimate questions that other religious worldviews do. Thus, whether you like it or not, atheism qualifies in the same way that Christianity would.[539]

[68] Likes and dislikes are preferences, and preferences do are not count as moral unless they correspond to what is actually the case of right and wrong. The question is, how does an atheist arrive at what is actually right and wrong without a fixed, unchanging, objective standard of reference???

[69] True, but they don't have the right basic for doing so.

[70] Again, Christianity qualifies as having what is necessary. From there, you can test the Bible's internal consistency in several ways, of which prophecy is an excellent reasoning tool. Then, as I have pointed out before, making sense of the universe, existence, morality is more reasonably by presupposing God than chance happenstance. The fine-tuning of the universe, the discovery of natural laws, the fact that we humans think in terms of right and wrong, and look for meaning all are more logical from God's standpoint, but you are entitled to think irrationally if you wish?

[71] We all believe things. You, as an atheist, believe things. You believe you can justify various aspects of atheism. 

We, as Christians, have a solid foundation for morality.[540] That foundation has what is necessary and can explain morality. Whether you believe it or not is a different matter.

There is much evidence that confirms the Bible.[541] It is reasonable. It says over and over that it is the Word of God, God speaking to humanity.
[ . . . ]

I seem to have misread Tradesecret. He was talking about atheists, not atheism.
[538] That is a claim you have made about 20 times already and have yet to prove. My reality-based worldview tells me it will never happen.
[539] Why would atheists answering some same questions as someone with a worldview imply atheism is a worldview ?

[68] I have addressed that too often already. I'll try to ignore such claims and questions from now on.

[69] Neither have others.

[70] You are completely missing the fact that there is disagreement on what is necessary for morality. You have again failed to demonstrate (for obvious reason) that what you believe is necessary, is really necessary. In other words, you failed to demonstrate the relevance of your god. I agree your worldview has what is necessary : it has moral agents. However, you have failed to demonstrate that atheistic worldviews don't have moral agents.
Further, one can test the Bible. Next, you CLAIM your worldview is more reasonable than chance happenstance. Futher you present evidence for it is unclear what, but I imagine you want it to be evidence of your worldview. So what ? None of it actually disputes that atheistic worldviews have what is necessary for morality.

Again, you asserted that atheists borrow from the Christian worldview. Stop waving red herrings and prove it. (No. I am not asking you to prove your red herrings, but to prove the claim at [70] in post 228.)

[540] Your fallacy of choice is the proof by repeated assertion. Claims do not become more true by being repeated more often.
[541] You are mistaken, even though the Bible is a topic you know a lot more about than I. Evidence does not confirm the Bible, but aspects of it, meaning that there is lot of evidence that the Bible is not entirely false, which is not even a contention. However, that is very weak evidence for Christianity.

Hence, all you have to present so far are your beliefs, beliefs that rational people are not gullible enough to adopt.

PGA2.0 228
I agree that morality cannot be tested through empirical means that science uses. It requires a different standard.[72] [ . . . ]
[72] Indeed. Many things are like that, all subjective things. Then comes along a group of people, who base their beliefs on texts written by ancient goat herds, telling us that morality is the exception and expecting skeptics to roll over and accept.
Notice how you were unable to see the inaccuray of the prediction Tradesecret made.[*]
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And then comes along another group who base their beliefs on chance happenstance, telling us that there are no exceptions and that we naturally should roll over and accept their subjective preferences. They don't have what is necessary for moral objectivism but like to preach as if their opinions are BETTER than others. So, as Christians, TradeSecret and I inquire why? I ask, what makes your opinions the bee all and end all?[541] Do you have what is necessary for them to be so, or should I take what you say with a grain of salt?[542]

[*] I don't follow your meaning.
You chose to indroduce your red herring fallacy through deflection. What those other people that allegedly come along somewhere else (as I haven't seen them) tell you is irrelevant and it is not my duty to explain the motives of those people.
[541] Your fallacy of choice is the loaded question, for you have so far been unable to demonstrate my opions are the bee all and end all.
[542] No.
Your continued evasion when confronted with challenges to you worldview indicates you know it is seriously flawed.

[*] You are suffering from confirmation bias. You selectively notice (and present to others) that which (you believe) supports your beliefs. You noticed from Tradesecret what you agreed with. However, Tradesecret inaccurately predicted the behaviour of atheists. That poorly fits into your worldview, so you were blind to it.

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3.) Moralistic fallacy

You follow up with your question begging in multiple places with this gem. Kudos as it’s the First time I’ve seen this fallacy used in these forums

[a] If morality is subjective, we can’t truly deduce an objective right or wrong. [b] Morality is ever changing, conformant to group ideals, mutable.
[a] That morality is subjective is your assumption, not mine. If you haven't noticed, I have been arguing all along that subjective morality does not have a firm foundation to rest upon. That is because it can't identify what is really the moral "right," for it becomes different and conflicting things to other people and groups. You really do need to tackle my argument regarding the laws of identity (A=A). If logic is irrelevant to morality, it can't help us determine the actual case. There would be none. 

[b] You call it moral. If there is no unchanging moral standard or reference, how is it moral? It is just preference. What makes that right? Nothing. It just makes it doable, as I continue to say and you disregard. You ignore addressing my points. I continue to bring them up.   

You may not like that - nor do I; you may be incredulous about it: but if that’s what it is; that’s what it is.
It is not what morality is, subjective. 

And you may not like the idea that morality cannot constantly be changing for it to be meaningful and actually something other than preference, which in itself is not moral. Anybody can justify anything if there is no ideal reference point, the true value, and your survival scenario doesn't work. Morality, I have argued, would mean God exists, and you are ultimately responsible for what you do. I can understand why such a thought would not be welcome by many. 

Greg Bahnsen explains objectivity well in Van Til's Apologetics, p.304-305. The correspondence of an idea has to match what the thing is, and my point is that you can't nail down what the thing is in relation to the moral because it can mean whatever the person or group wants to make it --> basically nonsense. Let us take a quantitative example as an illustration that needs to apply to qualitative values too. 

Bahnsen used a cow to illustrate his example. I will use my SUV. When I speak of my SUV, I speak of something that corresponds to an actual vehicle sitting in my yard, not just an idea that is not real. That vehicle is independent of my mind. Denying it would not lessen its actual reality. There is indeed a genuine SUV sitting in my yard, whether I (or you) deny it or not.

That is what you do with morality. You deny that it actually is something true/objective. 

Whether you like the truth, whether the find it sanitary of comfortable is irrelevant to whether it is true or not. 
While the statement is true, 

You are repeatedly implying because that conclusion is undesirable - it is wrong - attempting to appeal to the unpleasant nature of no act being truly or objectively immoral outside the lens of our own subjective moral compass as a reason not to believe it, is incoherent.
That is not the gist of my argument. It is not wrong because I imply it to be incorrect; thus, my subjective feelings determine right and wrong. That would be the case with your worldview, and if I were to adapt to your worldview, I would justify "morality" on such terms. I'm implying that morality is not understandable (nonsense) if there is no true, unchanging value for something moral because anyone can make it whatever they want to without such a standard. You and I could point to countless examples of this in human societies. Can you get your head around that?

I say that the Ten Commandments, as they apply to human relationships, is the objective standard. You shall not murder, steal, lie, commit adultery, covet, dishonour your parents. On the foundation of these principles, wrong is determined. Even though we see much subjectivity and opposite values in the world throughout recorded history, as C.S. Lewis pointed out, every significant culture of society has recognized such things as murder, stealing, lying, respecting parents as of right and codified them to some extent into their codes or laws. I also argue from the biblical text that humanity invented relative values by the Fall when Adam rejected God's good counsel and made up his own. Since we are created in the image and likeness of God, we retain a semblance of right and wrong because it is built into our being/consciousness by God. 

I'm not applying morality based on my subjective morality. Instead, I'm appealing to or pointing to a standard that is not my own with what is necessary to make sense of morality.