Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?

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Ramshutu
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Bullet 1. 

The criticisms of your argument are central to my point: and I’m going to address them first so I can return to them in further responses.

“Me: Good, bad, our conscience are all part of what morality is; thus your argument is that as good, bad and our conscience exist - they must be driven by something objective. This is a ridiculously obtuse non sequitur.”

Clarifying: Your argument is that what we determine good and bad are universal truths driven by a universal standard. In mine, what we determine as good and bad are subjective - learned by the standards. As the concepts of good and bad exist and are explained by both solutions; you can’t use their existence alone to justify one or the other.
 
“Oh no, it follows; a necessarily moral objective, not a group preference”

[argument by assertion / no true Scotsman]. You arbitrarily dismiss my explanation of morality without consideration or justification.

“Truth is objective. Truth never changes, thus eternal. Truth is independent of human minds since the object exists whether or not you do.”

[argument by assertion/Begging the question] What is true is objective - however, you are arbitrarily asserting that the concepts of “good”, “bad” = truth;.

You should be proving they are true (and thus good is objective), rather than asserting they are true (and thus objective): and then state that this proves they are objective.

Note: I paraphrased your argument that because the concepts of good and bad exist, they were objective; you said: “I don't like the way you paraphrase and misrepresent my argument below the point” ...  but the argument above almost verbatim makes that claim. 

“Also, how would you know the "good" or "bad" without comparing it to the "best;" the fact?”

Through the very thing you arbitrarily dismissed without reason a few lines ago.

Me: [assertions of objective morality] utterly fails to address any of the ways in which morality is clearly and unambiguously subjective.

This is pointing out that a subjective learned group behaviour, fits REALLY well with what we see. Different groups with different standards, morphing standards over time - the fact we are taught right from wrong.


“What you view as moral is nothing more than selective personal and group preference.”

[argument by assertion / no true Scotsman] You again reject my entire explanation for no reason.

“What makes something liked or desired moral unless there is a fixed and final (absolute) reference point?”

The very thing you arbitrarily dismissed without reason a few lines ago.

“I'm asking a question. You just draw good and bad from mid-air and call it such, while someone else, some other group, calls it the opposite. Who is right? You don't have a right, no fixed address.”

[Begging the question] Asserting that one of those two groups is “right”, assumes the universal standard you are trying to show. You are assuming your own conclusion.

It should be clear to you at this point, that the entirety of my argument, top to bottom; is solely predicated on the simple premise that there is no true right - that morality is subjective with no universal standard.

If, despite repeated correction, you constantly argue as if the centrally disputed fact of this entire argument is not in dispute and is as you claim it is: I can only conclude that you’re unwilling or unable to have an intellectually honest discussion.

Me: You are asserting that because those things exist, it requires morality to be objective. Recall, my entire argument provides a technical explanation of how these things can specifically exist

“I presume you are speaking of the Ten Commandments”

No: I’m referring to the exact the same fallacy you’ve used in conjunction twice above, and ignored again.

You dismiss the alternative explanation; and then declare that there’s no other alternative explanation other than objective morality.

“Is there a culture that does not view killing innocent human babies for fun as good/right?”

This is actually half an argument without being based on an assertion or fallacy.  Literally your first in the last 5-6 posts.

The US. Abortion is considered morally fine for over half the population. That’s pretty close to your request. No?

If you want to be specific, though: child sacrifice was practiced at various times around the world: so the idea that multiple cultures supported killing their own children as a moral good, pretty much flies in the face of your claims.

Kids were murdered extensively by the Nazis - including for fun; and were murdered as payback in Lidice for fun. 

Infanticide was only made illegal in the 4th century in Europe; female infanticide in various cultures was pretty well accepted; many cultures view honour killings positively.

God sent a bear to maul children for mocking someone for being bald. He murdered all children on the entire planet during the flood, all children in sodom and Gomorrah, murdered all the first born in Egypt - so even God gets in on that baby murdering action.

So yeah - multiple cultures have repeatedly murdered children, and it was viewed as okay. And even we’re we to use your arbitrarily narrow definition of “for fun” presumably because you know anything less will have innumerable examples.

Such universal barbarity against children throughout history, seems pretty open and shut against objective morality, no?

Yet: were morality simply a learned standard - it would make perfect sense. 

Me: I explained how morality could exist without being objective - you have ignored it.
 
“No, I have not ignored it. I have addressed it. What you call morals is nothing more than personal and group preference unless there is an objective, fact-based best to compare moral qualities.”

[argument by assertion / no true Scotsman] You again reject my entire explanation for no reason; then claim rejecting it for no reason is “addressing” it.

“I pointed out to either you or someone else that abortion is never morally right unless there is no option to save at least one life..... Yet, recent abortion stats show that [financial, personal reasons] comprises most abortions in America.”

[Argument by Assertion/begging the question] Simply asserting that abortion is never moral, doesn’t make it so. It smacks of simply assuming your own conclusion.

Prove that abortion is never moral.


Conclusion on bullet 1.)

The whole point of (1) was that I am arguing that morality is subjective, and to point out that you are simply repeatedly asserting that morality is objective; nominally using its sole existence as proof.

Not only did you utterly fail to refute that point at all, your response was effectively continually repeating the same error.

This reply is so riddled with assertions, no true Scotsman fallacies and assumed conclusions; that it borders on utterly intellectually bankrupt.
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Bullet 2

My whole point here is that you continually and repeatedly assume your own conclusions by assuming that subjective morality must have objective notions of good and bad - so can’t exist.

2.) You are confused as to what subjective morality is.

“No, I am not. I am delving into what is necessary for morality and your subjective OPINIONS do not justify calling it moral unless it is.”

You say that you are not confused: and then show you are confused.

Subjective morality is where what we humans feel as moral is based on subjective emotional responses, rather than some Universal fact. 

Unilaterally asserting that a morality that operates on those rules isn’t true morality is 
(> ‘’ )> [no true Scotsman


“What is moral has to be based on what is truly right and good..”

[Begging the question] ironically, your respond to a bullet that explains how you’re begging the question, by begging the same question again.

“Making it up just makes it preferable”
[Strawman] Morality being derived from an objective group standard is not “making it up” - which implies conscious decision.

[No true Scotsman] this is your favourite fallacy it seems. Moral is what we feel is moral - if what we feel is moral is subjective and learned; then what is moral is based on the subjective.

The question is not whether we feel that things are good or bad - it’s whether the concept of good and bad are products of our mind, and thus have no true value outside of them; or whether good and bad are objective external things that exist outside of our ability to feel them. 

“If something is not objectively true then is it true at all? You are making up a subjective value that depends on you and others who think like you and calling it morally good or bad. That is where we differ. While I point to something eternal to myself or yourself, I point to a Mind. I point to a Mind that is necessary and eternal. You point to contingent minds that make things up. “

I’m suggesting what is good and bad has not external meaning outside humanity. You are asserting that it does (but not showing it)


“If they are not independent objectively external things then what makes your "truth" truer than my opposing truth? You jokey around truth as if it is subjective”

[strawman/begging the question] assuming there is a universal true morality is assuming your own conclusion. Please stop doing that.

Also a Strawman as the entire premise of my entire argument top to bottom is that there is no universal objective moral truth - so to imply that my moral truth is someone truer is to completely misrepresent my argument.

As I said earlier: If you’re unable to characterize my position correctly, and repeatedly argue as if I am saying the exact opposite of what I am - I must wonder if you’re capable of engaging in an argument in an intellectually honest way.


“Your response through your entire first play, and the bill of the second can really be summarized as:

“there must be a true best, because otherwise, how can there be a true best”.

Nope, my entire first play is that true or actual truth is based on an objectively omniscient, omnibenevolent, immutable, eternal necessary Being who is greater than our thinking and who has revealed what is true. 

[Argument by assertion] even you have to acknowledge that shouting at someone that God exists, and it’s the truth, is not a coherent logical argument no matter which words you underline.

Note: you also completely fail to address the accusation.

“My Ace beats your two of Spades, for I have what is needed for and makes sense of morality. You do not; only think you do.”

[Argument by assertion.] simply saying you are right is not a valid argument.

Worse, it’s also horrifically false. 

As I have explained; morality being learned and subjective allows us to explain almost all of human behaviour. It explains why infanticide is acceptable in many previous cultures, it explains the
Zeitgeist, how some cultures have condoned genocide, it explains why morality appears mutable and subjective throughout human history. 

Why has morality changed so much for so long, and continues to change throughout the world if it’s all based on a universal moral standard? I don’t know - you haven’t at any point explained why. Indeed, it seems you have been repeatedly unable to talk about human morality in a way that doesn’t exactly fit my proposed explanation...

“Your subjective opinion is not an authority I can justify or trust as "knowing" based on a materialistic, naturalistic framework where blind chance happenstance is at play. Jerry Coyne and many others admit as much.”

[Argument from incredulity] this is addressed in greater length in my previous posts about evolution.

“That framework unravels with introspection. It is inconsistent with what we witness in that "morality" as you call it, has no true identity, just subjective feelings based on what is, not what should be (except where it jives with God's revelation). The identity changes between individuals and groups as to what is right, making the "right" redundant, nothing but a power play that you are playing at outmaneuvering me.”

[Argument by assertion - outright denial of reality] How exactly is a subjective, changing morality, that differs between generations, between groups and individuals , where no one can agree on what is moral “inconsistent” with what we observe in human morality - that appears to be constantly changing, that differs between generations, between groups and individuals , where no one can agree on what is moral? 

Indeed, as I noted in point (5) you hilariously affirm that facts match my framework throughout, you have failed to address any of the points where I explain that what we observe appears subjective, and as of yet, have ignored every mention of how objective morality does not fit what we observe. This is bordering on the absurd.


Conclusion:

So on bullet 2, the whole point I make is that you continually and repeatedly assume your own conclusion.  Your criticism of my explanation assumes that morality is objective; and thus is invalid.

Your response is not to explain exactly how you are not assuming your conclusion, but to simply loudly and more strongly assume that same conclusion.




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4.) Theistic morality is subjective.
It depends on the god spoken of. Is that God the greatest conceivable being? Biblical morality is objective. God is all knowing. Omniscience is complete understanding. It complies with objectivity. 

Can [a] god command that Murder is moral? It’s a Yes or no question that you evaded with theocrababble.
No. (Concerning the biblical God; the only God I believe in and defend)

It would be against His nature to command such a thing.

You ask me for an explanation and then build into the response your conditional yes/no stipulation while ad homing me and insulting my belief as 'theocra'-babble carp. 

[a] Which god? Are you speaking of the biblical God? He does not command murder as moral. To the contrary, He commands "Thou shall not kill (murder)." He tells His people not to take an innocent life. 

So innocent blood will not be shed in the midst of your land which the Lord your God is giving you as an inheritance, and guilt for bloodshed will not be on you.

IMO, you are trying to build a yes or no answer into a hypothetical and set up Plato's Euthyphro argument below.

If he is unable to do so; then Morality is outside of Gods control and cannot - by definition - come from God.
If He is unable to command murder is moral, then it is outside God's control and cannot by definition come from God?
The question is why would God want to do that? WHY? Why would a benevolent (by nature) God command something that is evil? You have not provided a sufficient reason why He would. 

Murder is against His (moral) nature, thus He would not command it for His creature, the human, made in His image. The Judeo-Christian God is pure and holy without sin or moral defect. Humanity, in Adam, was morally good until sin was found in him because of his decision to disobey God. That decision has an implication on the rest of humanity. At the Fall, humans became relative beings, no longer only knowing the good. At the Fall humans, in Adam, the federal head, decided to know evil and evil was their own actions. Thank goodness God had a plan of redemption that was played out in history for the benefit of those who would (through God's grace) come to believe and be restored to His grace and mercy.   

If God is able to do so; would murder be moral. Another yes or no question, which you evaded.
You seem to think that the moral laws are above God when they are within His nature which is loving. (1 John 4:71 John 4:8; 2 Corinthians 13:4-7) You can't do something that is beyond your nature. It is not in the human nature to fly like a bird. It is not in God's nature to do evil. Logically, it is impossible to create a square circle. The biblical God is a logical God who will not compromise His holiness and purity.

If yes: [a] then morality is inherently subjective and good/bad is arbitrary. If no: morality cannot come from God.

This is the fundamental paradox with your argument; and a primary reason why your argument is completely incoherent. You just evaded the paradox - rather than address it.
[a] Nope, God has an objective outlook since He knows all things and He created us in His image and likeness, and He has revealed. We are moral beings by nature. God has commanded murder is wrong, yet God is different than His creatures regarding murder. As our Creator, God has the right to do with what He creates as He pleases, and God has revealed that He will not take an innocent human life without restoring it to a better existence. We do not have the ability to restore life once a person is dead. We can take (steal) something that does not belong to us. God is the Creator of all things. How can a person steal something that already belongs to them? Thus, the Ten Commandments do not apply to Him; they apply to humans. God sovereignly chooses that humans will have a volition, a will of their own just like He has a will of His own, and gives humans the ability to choose yet the ideal is love, the love of God, which the Ten Commandments teach indirectly by giving us the negatives of love.   

What makes it doubly incoherent - is that God commits or commands murder, genocide, slavery, etc,  multiple, multiple times in the Bible. So it’s not even a hypothetical.
Nope, God does not commit or command murder, or chattel slavery. He explicitly forbids His people (OT Israel) not to treat others as they were treated in Israel. Murder is something humans do to humans when humans take innocent life. You ASSUME that the same laws that apply to us apply to God. God as the giver of life is the only one who has the right to take innocent life away because God will not take an innocent life without restoring it to a better place. The question is, is your life innocent of wrongdoing as defined by Gods commands? Can you pass His test? Have you ever taken the holy God's name in vain? Have you every lusted after a woman who is not your wife. Have you ever coveted something that does not belong to you? Have you ever lied? Have you ever stolen something, even a pen from work? Jesus said the wages of sin is death. Sin demands a punishment, spiritual death or separation from a holy and loving God. Why? Because God will not tolerate wrongful action in His presence. He will address it in His time. But since God is loving He has supplied a righteous solution to the problem of sin. I say all this not just for your benefit, but for anyone else reading this, so that they may understand God's nature a little more. Having said that, will you listen or just want to tear my thoughts that I contend express biblical truths apart? I realize the issue is not between me and you but between you and God.  

Genesis is literally (in approximate order of appearance) genocide of all humanity, destruction of Babel for being too smart, killing lots wife and murdering everyone in sodom, killing everyone in the Egyptian army, telling people not to murder, genocide against the Amelkites, etc. 
Nope, there is a difference between murder and killing. Murder is the taking of an innocent life. God restores an innocent life to a better existence. The problem with the earth at the time of Noah was that wickedness and evil had spread across the earth. What you fail to understand is that God is a just Judge. He does address evil. As with your other examples, they too deal with judgment on the wicked, those who failed to repent and seek God's goodness. If you want me to address each example further I will.  

Tell me, if this morality is objective; if someone I know is running away from a city I am bombing, it should be morally justified for me to kill them for looking back?
Your fallacies of choice seem to be a preponderance to either draw false analogies or appeal to consequences. God commanded Lot and his family not to look back to the city. Lot's wife disobeyed God's good command and sinned. God did not want Lot's wife drawn into sin yet she was disobedience and disobeyed God. 

If some kids mock my friend for being bald; is it morally justified for me to release a live bear to maul them? It was moral for God, if morality is objective - the act is moral, right?
God as the Creator and good Judge has the right to address sin.  or willful disobedience to the good.

If I feel humanity is wicked; is it okay if I destroy the planet but save for a few people I think are good?


The answer is clearly no to all of those for any normal person and that leads to only 2 possibilities

  • Those actions are clearly morally wrong by our standards; and thus God is not a valid moral standard.
  • That “best” in this framework is so arbitrary you can use it to  literally argue genocide is a moral good - making “good” mean whatever you want it to. Thus - Inherently subjective.

What is grotesque here; is that you object to morality only existing in our heads, and judged by ourselves; and yet uphold a system where you must tie yourself in knots to justify genocide as a moral good as virtuous.
You keep making categorical errors in your logic. God chooses when to bring judgment for sin on a nation or and individual.

What I object to is that you can't explain why something is good for some yet wrong for others as anything other than subjective preference. I keep asking what makes contrary subjective preference a standard that should be followed? Why is your subjective preference any better than mine or Hitler's subjective preference? If subjective preference is the standard you place morality upon, nothing is better than anything else. So, don't tell me what to do (i.e., Stop it). You are as inconsistent as they come with your moral relativism.

It insults all of our intelligence. Stop it.
Stop it. Stop censoring me. Once you stop misrepresenting God by your poor understanding and twisting of His Word then I will stop giving an explanation. How is that? In all those examples you give you find in the biblical description that the creature disobeys God and does what was morally wrong. Will a good Judge ignore punishing what is wrong? How would He be good in doing so? These situations teach us that God addresses sin in His time. Some verses of Scripture help us to understand that God permits humans to sin until they heap up their sins to a measure in which God says no more. There comes a point where God says, "Enough is enough." Then He requires accountability. The OT nation of Israel illustrates to us that 1) God allows sin for a purpose, that good will come from it, and 2) as an example of disobedience and its consequences that we may learn from such examples of what is wrong and should not be done. The good that comes from sin is that some see their need for a Saviour, the righteous ONE and turn to Him to be saved from God's judgment. His payment is sufficient for those who believe. 

But these two things will come on you suddenly in one day: Loss of children and widowhood. They will come on you in full measure In spite of your many sorceries, In spite of the great power of your spells.

Both your own wrongdoings and the wrongdoings of your fathers together,” says the Lord. “Because they have burned incense on the mountains And scorned Me on the hills, Therefore I will measure their former work into their laps.”

Fill up, then, the measure of the guilt of your fathers.

God only permits evil for a time and for a reason, that good will come of it. Rebellion against the goodness of God eventually brings judgment because it is fitting that a good God addresses evil/what is wrong. 


Ramshutu
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Bullet 3

This bullet explains that much of your argument is the moralistic fallacy: a contrast to is/ought, it’s the ought/is - that because some fact ought to be, that is true.

You repeatedly point to moralistic decisions, and continually state that subjective morality is wrong because it would mean there is no true good, anyone moral decision could be construed good and multiple variations therein.  your argument is not that this doesn’t fit what we see (it does), but that it’s just wrong. What makes it a moralistic fallacy; is the reliance on emotive arguments to conflate the undesirability of subjective morality (“would Nazi genocide be ok?” For example) with its validity.

That’s pretty open and shut:

Me. If morality is subjective, we can’t truly deduce an objective right or wrong. Morality is ever changing, conformant to group ideals, mutable.

“That morality is subjective is your assumption, not mine.”

The statement you are replying to is of the form “if x then y” - This is not “an assumption”, this is a logical formulation. Specifying what the resulting conditions would be were the contention true. We do this for both sides, then abduct which best fits reality.

I do this throughout: using if then, to logically deduct/induct how reality would look if morality were subjective so we can compare results.

That you confuse this logical process with pure assumption is simply staggering, as it implies that you don’t understand how logical formulation works.

“If you haven't noticed, I have been arguing all along that subjective morality does not have a firm foundation to rest upon. That is because it can't identify what is really the moral "right," for it becomes different and conflicting things to other people and groups.”

I have noticed: unilaterally assuming that morality is objective without justification, and then use this as a rationale for discounting subjective morality - you have assumed your own conclusion, otherwise known as [Begging the question]

“You really do need to tackle my argument regarding the laws of identity (A=A). If logic is irrelevant to morality, it can't help us determine the actual case. There would be none. “

[Begging the question] your identity formulation assumes that good/bad are true - which means you assume they are objective.

“You call it moral. If there is no unchanging moral standard or reference, how is it moral? It is just preference.”

[No true Scotsman] see previous posts.

“What makes that right? Nothing”

The subjective preference you just discounted without basis a line before makes it “right”, to us.

“It just makes it doable, as I continue to say and you disregard. You ignore addressing my points. I continue to bring them up. “

[false] oh, I am very much not ignoring your points. If you recall, over the last dozen or so posts, I have been specifically attacking this point on the basis that it’s [begging the question]

You should be logically demonstrating that morality is objective, that morality is based on a universal standard and that a true best can be derived.

What you are doing, is simply repeatedly pretending as if the central point of contention, the very aspect of reality that is in dispute in this thread - is not in dispute by simply asserting over and over again that morality is objective. 

At this point, given how much this has been pointed out; and given how unwilling you have been to even acknowledge that this has been pointed out, leave alone correct it, seems to indicate you are either unwilling or unable to engage in any sort of intellectually honest conversation.


“And you may not like the idea that morality cannot constantly be changing for it to be meaningful”

[begging the question] prove that morality as we experience it is objectively meaningful.

[proves my point] 
P1: objective morality is meaningful.
P2: constantly changing morality is not meaningful.
P3: morality is constantly changing.
C: morality is not objective 

“...and actually something other than preference, which in itself is not moral.”

[No true Scotsman]

“Anybody can justify anything if there is no ideal reference point, the true value”

[Begging the question]

“And your survival scenario doesn't work.”

[argument by assertion] your objections to the survival scenario were primarily straw men, and covered in posts above.

“Morality, I have argued, would mean God exists, and you are ultimately responsible for what you do.”

You have assumed the conclusion - this is not the same as argued. 

To have argued means that you should have logically demonstrated that morality is objective - rather than simply continually assume it is.

“The correspondence of an idea has to match what the thing is, and my point is that you can't nail down what the thing is in relation to the moral because it can mean whatever the person or group wants to make it --> basically nonsense.

[begging the question] same as before. You’re just assuming that morality is objective, then complains that subjective morality does not match.

“When I speak of my SUV, I speak of something that corresponds to an actual vehicle sitting in my yard, not just an idea that is not real. That vehicle is independent of my mind. Denying it would not lessen its actual reality. There is indeed a genuine SUV sitting in my yard, whether I (or you) deny it or not”

[begging the question] this argument assumes that morality is a real thing. Denying the possibility that morality could be an idea that is not real, is begging the question 


Me. You are repeatedly implying because that conclusion is undesirable - it is wrong - attempting to appeal to the unpleasant nature of no act being truly or objectively immoral outside the lens of our own subjective moral compass as a reason not to believe it, is incoherent.

“That is not the gist of my argument.”

[strawman] I’m not saying it’s the gist of the argument - it’s a fallacy you employ throughout. And ironically, you employ that same fallacy in defence;

“It is not wrong because I imply it to be incorrect; thus, my subjective feelings determine right and wrong. That would be the case with your worldview, and if I were to adapt to your worldview, I would justify "morality" on such terms. I'm implying that morality is not understandable (nonsense) if there is no true, unchanging value for something moral because anyone can make it whatever they want to without such a standard.

[Moralistic fallacy] you employ the same moralistic fallacy to defend against accusations you are employing a moralistic fallacy.

If there is no universal standard - morality is unanchored, not objectively determinable (though it would not necessarily qualify as nonsense - given the objective imperative I described, and engaging in the concept of enlightened self interest, which is another story), and there would be no true basis for comparing moral standards.

So? If that was the case, it makes your position true, how exactly?

You don’t explain why our morality being nonsense means it can’t exist (see bullet 1 - don’t confuse morality being subjective with not being experienced).

The emotive language you’re using repeatedly means you are strongly
implying that the conclusion is false because it is undesirable.

“You and I could point to countless examples of this in human societies. Can you get your head around that?”

[proves my point] Of course: the existence of ever changing, subjective, arbitrary moral beliefs on human that we argue about continually almost seems to suggest there is no universal unchanging anchor grounding morality, doesn’t it.

“I say that the Ten Commandments, as they apply to human relationships, is the objective standard. You shall not murder, steal, lie, commit adultery, covet, dishonour your parents. On the foundation of these principles, wrong is determined.”

[argument by assertion] Simply citing a paragraph from a book, and stating it is an objective standard does not make it so. 

Please demonstrate why. Let me use something more specific;

Imagine two possibilities:

A.) an all powerful omnipotent God exists, and wrote down a universal moral standard in a book that survived to this day.

B.) God doesn’t exist, and Bronze Age humans wrote down a fictional set of moral standards.


If I have you a book that contained a moral standard: how would you logically identity whether it was A or B?

“though we see much subjectivity and opposite values in the world throughout recorded history, as C.S. Lewis pointed out, every significant culture of society has recognized such things as murder, stealing, lying, respecting parents as of right and codified them to some extent into their codes or laws. I also argue from the biblical text that humanity invented relative values by the Fall when Adam rejected God's good counsel and made up his own. Since we are created in the image and likeness of God, we retain a semblance of right and wrong because it is built into our being/consciousness by God.”

As I pointed out, this is all largely explained by having a learned morality driven by an evolutionary imperative.

Lying, murder, stealing, etc is bad because it causes group dysfunction; sexual morality - no cheating etc; can be described by simple reproductive selection; but all within an individual group. 

Explaining why things like war, and lying to enemies is weighed by different standards. 

So In this respect, both frameworks explain these facts. 

“I'm not applying morality based on my subjective morality. Instead, I'm appealing to or pointing to a standard that is not my own with what is necessary to make sense of morality.”

[begging the question] assumes morality must make sense.

As I pointed out; the ever changing moral state of humanity is made sense of my a subjective morality too (arguably better as it requires fewer assumptions)



Conclusion Bullet 3:

Same question begging/NTS throughout. Moralistic fallacy simply repeated.

Your strategy here appears to be what I refer to as the argument shotgun.

Rather than deal with the broad argument, it is broken down to small individual phrases or statements, which are all attacked with a set of independent individual arguments which are not joined up to attack the overreaching point being made.

IE: to contest that you are using the moralistic fallacy, you launch into a whole bunch of unrelated argument on points that are not really related to the moralistic fallacy, without actually contesting the underlying claim much at all: 

You don’t, for example, outline the moralistic fallacy, and specifically describe how the conclusion is justified without using desirability, you simply restate your argument with the same implied desirability.

I’m really just getting the feeling that rather than engaging with anything that anyone is actually saying, your trying to continually drive the argument into regurgitating the same talking points being contested.
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@Ramshutu
Subjective morality is where what we humans feel as moral is based on subjective emotional responses, rather than some Universal fact. 
You can’t use the word in the definition.
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@Tarik
I’m not defining the word subjective.
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@Ramshutu
I was referring to the word moral.

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@Tarik
I’m not defining what morality is either.

I’m defining what I mean by morality being subjective in contrast to objective.

IE: I’m simply clarifying that subjective morality is simply morality that has a subjective standard, rather than a universal standard to avoid any potential confusion.

I’m not sure what your objection is.
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@Ramshutu
I’m not defining what morality is either.

I’m defining what I mean by morality
Contradiction at its finest 🥱.
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@Tarik
I’m defining what I mean by morality 
Should be:

I’m defining what I mean by morality being subjective 

Don’t intentionally misquote people; it’s intellectually dishonest.
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@Ramshutu
Don’t intentionally misquote people; it’s intellectually dishonest.
It’s only misquoting if I quoted something that you didn’t say, but you did say that and I made sure of that by copying and pasting the quote, in regards to my intentions I admit I am guilty of not adding the extra meaningless variables but that was only to put emphasis on my point of you being contradictory.
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@Tarik
54 pages and still flogging the dead horse, I see.


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@Tarik
I admit I am guilty of not adding the extra meaningless variables
You explicitly omitted a critical part of my post which rendered the two parts different. 

I’m sorry you didn’t fully understand what I said originally; the correct response is to apologize: or just stop responding; not to deliberately shoe horn whatever dishonest argument you can make in order to save face for your original error.
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@zedvictor4
You see nothing, page 53 was my first post on this forum, don’t worry about me.
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@Ramshutu
You explicitly omitted a critical part of my post which rendered the two parts different. 
No, because like I said before it was a meaningless variable, unless you’re arguing a distinction between morality and subjective morality which weakens your original argument because if theirs a distinction then morality isn’t in fact subjective.

I’m sorry you didn’t fully understand what I said originally
Me calling you out for your contradicting error isn’t me misunderstanding, in fact it’s the total opposite.

not to deliberately shoe horn whatever dishonest argument you can make in order to save face for your original error.
If anything’s a dishonest argument it’s this one, everything I said you said you actually did say, I didn’t say you said that ONLY.
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@Tarik
No, because like I said before it was a meaningless variable,

The specific qualifying distinction I add to what I am defining that completely changes the specific thing I am describing; it’s absolutely not meaningless. And the only reason your asserting it is, is because you realized you messed up in your original objection.

unless you’re arguing a distinction between morality and subjective morality which weakens your original argument because if theirs a distinction then morality isn’t in fact subjective.
Replace morality with “light bulb”, and “subjective” with on.

I am not defining what “light” means, or what “on means”, simply making sure we agree on what  the light being turned on means in contrast to it being off.

Your reply here borders on idiotic ; as you’re essentially saying that if I am drawing a distinction between a “light”, and a “light that is turned on”, the the light we are talking about cannot be turned on.

It’s a ridiculous argument that does not appear to recognize that I am talking about a quality of something, not the something of self.

At this point, your argument has become what I refer to as “picking peanuts out of poop”.
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@Ramshutu
The specific qualifying distinction I add to what I am defining that completely changes the specific thing I am describing
Then your pretty much admitting that morality isn’t subjective.

I am not defining what “light” means, or what “on means”, simply making sure we agree on what  the light being turned on means in contrast to it being off.
Difference here is a light bulb can turn on or off, morality can’t turn objective or subjective.

Your reply here borders on idiotic ; as you’re essentially saying that if I am drawing a distinction between a “light”, and a “light that is turned on”, the the light we are talking about cannot be turned on.
But that’s not a distinction, your simply just making a broad topic more specific.

It’s a ridiculous argument that does not appear to recognize that I am talking about a quality of something, not the something of self.
Well if the quality of it is subjective then you shouldn’t use the word subjective in your explanation.

At this point, your argument has become what I refer to as “picking peanuts out of poop”.
And your arguments have been illogical and dishonest, back in your court.
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@Tarik
Morality is subjective and objective. The two basis of morality is sentiment and reason. That people generally feel the same, given common experience, and that people reason in the same way though the quality of reasoning may differ, creates conditions where moral agreements are possible.
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@FLRW
That makes no sense, objectivity and subjectivity cancels out, it’s fundamentally impossible to be both.
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@Tarik
Different thread, same dead horse.

As I've said before....Objectivity is arrived at, by a subjective process.

Objectivity is always subjective.
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@zedvictor4
Objectivity is always subjective.
Prove it.
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@Tarik
I think this proves zedvictor4's point. A subjective truth is a truth based off of a person's perspective, feelings, or opinions. Everything we know is based off of our input - our senses, our perception. Thus, everything we know is subjectiveAll truths are subjective.
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@FLRW
subjective truth is a truth based off of a person's perspective, feelings, or opinions.
Well if it’s solely based off of that then it’s not a truth, truths are based off of hard objective facts.
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@Tarik
The specific qualifying distinction I add to what I am defining that completely changes the specific thing I am describing
Then your pretty much admitting that morality isn’t subjective.
No: see below. Defining what it means for the light to be on does not admit that the light is not on.




I am not defining what “light” means, or what “on means”, simply making sure we agree on what  the light being turned on means in contrast to it being off.
Difference here is a light bulb can turn on or off, morality can’t turn objective or subjective.
Also light bulbs are made of glass - and morality isn’t! So that’s a difference too!

The difference is not relevant to the analogy: the analogy is explaining that light bulb and and an light bulb that are turned on are describing a thing, and a thing with a given property.

This is just ridiculous knee jerk nonsense “omg I have to find some way to object” type response.

Your reply here borders on idiotic ; as you’re essentially saying that if I am drawing a distinction between a “light”, and a “light that is turned on”, the the light we are talking about cannot be turned on.
But that’s not a distinction, your simply just making a broad topic more specific.
And this is specifically relevant how.

It’s a ridiculous argument that does not appear to recognize that I am talking about a quality of something, not the something of self.
Well if the quality of it is subjective then you shouldn’t use the word subjective in your explanation.
I’m specifically referring to your interesting argument where to try and keep up the pretence that you are correct, you pretend that you are unable to distinguish a thing, and a thing with a given state: your apparent confusion that a fast helicopter is not a helicopter or light that is turned on is not a light.

In the case of morality. Subjective morality is morality in a given state, driven by something. No one disagrees on the definition of morality, or the definition of subjective - but it makes sense to clarify exactly what I mean by subjective morality in the context of what drives it - which is the entire context of this point in the original argument. 


At this point, your argument has become what I refer to as “picking peanuts out of poop”.
And your arguments have been illogical and dishonest, back in your court.
Ahh yes, the “I know you are but what Am I defence”.

Let me clarify. You’re not talking about your original claim any more: you’ve made a set of completely different arguments on each individual response that don’t make any sense related to each other, or tie back to the original. Indeed, these all make little sense and you’ll drop these to focus on specific new unrelated errors you can spin from what Ive said.

Your main defence is to argue that light, and a light that is on are not both lights. This is a rudimentary error of categorization - and that you can make it and call me illogical, is rather obscene.

You make this argument again, drop it for the rest of the reply - and make some rather ridiculous statements, such as that a light can be turned on invalidates an analogy that expresses that  a particular object in a given state is still that particular object.

The fact that you haven’t defended the initial claim is “the poop”, this scattershot of individual arguments trying to find a variety of different issues with specific lines, without tying them back to the original, are like the little peanuts.

Let me call your responses: You will drop each one of these points when you realize they can’t be eaten, and then simply find other issues with each new reply, each time getting further and further away from your original point.
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@Ramshutu
No: see below. Defining what it means for the light to be on does not admit that the light is not on.
…Okay? But I never said anything remotely close to that.

Also light bulbs are made of glass - and morality isn’t! So that’s a difference too!
…Okay? But you never compared those two things.

The difference is not relevant to the analogy
On the contrary, the difference is why the analogy doesn’t work in the first place.

And this is specifically relevant how.
…Because it’s responsive to something that you said?

I’m specifically referring to your interesting argument where to try and keep up the pretence that you are correct, you pretend that you are unable to distinguish a thing, and a thing with a given state: your apparent confusion that a fast helicopter is not a helicopter or light that is turned on is not a light.
No, I’m unable to distinguish a thing if the given state is what makes up that thing, a helicopter is still a helicopter regardless of the fast label you attach to it just as much as a light is still a light regardless of whether or not it’s on or off, however if I were to try and keep up with the pretense that you are correct in regards to morality’s subjective nature then morality can’t be morality without the subjective label attached to it because that’s what makes morality what it is.
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@Tarik
You prove it yourself, every time that you produce a response to a debateart stimulus.

Data in, data assessment, configure response, data out.

You make every thing up, irrespective of the accepted veracity of the content. 


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@zedvictor4
You prove it yourself, every time that you produce a response to a debateart stimulus.
That doesn’t mean objectivity is always subjective, you clearly don’t know what those two terms mean.
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@Tarik
No, I’m unable to distinguish a thing if the given state is what makes up that thing, a helicopter is still a helicopter regardless of the fast label you attach to it just as much as a light is still a light regardless of whether or not it’s on or off, however if I were to try and keep up with the pretense that you are correct in regards to morality’s subjective nature then morality can’t be morality without the subjective label attached to it because that’s what makes morality what it is.
The argument you're making would apply to "objective morality" as well - is objective morality distinct from morality? It seems absurd to me that we should think chocolate ice cream is not really ice cream...or that any 'flavor' of morality is not morality.  So long as we're referring to principles/rules of humans interacting with others for the benefit of all involved - its morality. For the record, it is subjective. ;-)

Do you have a position on morality or are you just here to nitpick?
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@SkepticalOne
is objective morality distinct from morality?
I wouldn’t say so.

It seems absurd to me that we should think chocolate ice cream is not really ice cream...or that any 'flavor' of morality is not morality. 
I agree.
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@Tarik
I understand the  semantic differentiation.

Nonetheless, the process is the same....All internal data construct, and therefore all basically subjective.

As defined....Influenced by personal tastes, feelings or opinions.

There is no way of differentiating process, therefore, all output is personal.