You were asking for a literal definition? Okay.
...
I'm suggesting that the hypocrisy is in condemning welfare and then participating and enabling the welfare system.
Without a more specific definition I have only the one I understand as standard. Under that definition "partipating" and "enabling" have some relevent differences.
A slave participates in slavery when he works. He does not enable slavery by accepting goods and services from his or her master. If anything he or she enables it by working at all.
No one forced Rand to sign up
Good. We can abandon this "partially coerced" platitude.
No, it was her labor which was partially coerced.
True hypocrisy for a slave (who claimed all humans deserved to be free) would be owning a slave.
Exactly; hence the reason your analogy doesn't suffice.
My analogy doesn't fail just because it fails to mirror your claim.
It is my position that there is very little a slave can do to be a hypocrite even if he has a principle of emancipation. Working doesn't make him a hypocrite, nor does receiving benefits. Even loyalty doesn't make him a hypocrite. Helping to prolong or begin the enslavement of others is about it.
I disagree. If you extend that logic then voting is legitimizing/enabling the practice.
Yes, it very much is. What is voting if not enabling the majority to coerce the labor and resources of dissenters through taxation?
Well at least you're consistent in your error. Accepting welfare doesn't support the system, and neither does voting for liberty.
The only question you need to ask to know this is: What would happen if I didn't participate?
Welfare: The exact same thing except you would suffer and someone else would get your stolen value, stabilizing the government by increasing support from those who benefited from what was stolen from you.
Voting: The exact same thing, except there would not even be the awareness of a counter-force in the population making it all the easier to ridicule and isolate true liberals as "fringe" and "crazy".
they're going to have to continue to tax--namely the members of the labor force whose generations follow yours.
They're going to do that anyway. Also they don't "have" to do that in order to repay the value they stole. They could just give back exactly the value they stole. Until such time as exact value is recovered that is a morally identical situation.
It's a pyramid scheme.
That is also a good analogy.
In a pyramid scheme the money stolen from newer victims is used to pay the dividends of the older victims. In the end there is a deficit because the scammers "profit" is that which they steal for themselves. For the government it's a combination of corrupt enrichment, pure waste, and wealth redistribution.
You are admitting that paying the "investment" money to the pyramid scheme is coerced and unavoidable, but that somehow if one can refuse to be paid dividends then one has a moral duty to do so.
This is false in this example too. If you didn't accept dividends would that weaken the pyramid scheme by one iota? No, it would prolong it as it allows the conmen to continue paying other victims for longer delaying the moment of discovery (which is analogous to revolution for the government).
Any value what so ever that can be recovered from the conmen should be recovered. If you recover more than you originally invested then you have a moral duty to distribute it to other victims.
It's that simple, and I continue to see no reason to doubt this analysis.
Boycotting social security payments would eliminate the pretext for a social security (payroll) tax.
Yet we know millions upon millions of families "boycott" public school. Do the collectivist care one bit? Do they ever say something like "Well people who aren't using the public school system shouldn't have to pay"
No, they don't think like that. Therefore if we can get school vouchers, we are morally entitled to use them.
Of course it's absurd. Because the analogy itself is absurd. Nowhere in that analogy have you created a sufficient equivalence with that which was stolen from you (taxes) and that which you allege is supposedly returned to you (social security benefits.)
If the plantation farms cotton, then butter and sugar aren't what were produced. It doesn't matter if it's the same value. Even if it did money is fungible so it is for all intents and purposes the same thing.
The reason slavery as an analogy doesn't work is that when we consider what's being stolen, there's no equivalence or return for "self-ownership."
More than one thing can be stolen at a time. If labor producing cotton is stolen and bartered (through any number of intermediaries) for butter and sugar then receiving butter and sugar qualifies as recovering a part of that which was stolen.
What if the slave master decides to provide the emancipated slave, not with slaves, but with money he/she got from selling off other slaves? Would that make it "less hypocritical"? Or what if the slave is still a slave, and the master decides to provide said slave with the aforementioned? Is that not hypocritical?
It would only be hypocritical if refusing the benefit would prevent the further abuse.
So if the master offers a deal where the slave could choose between receiving the revenue of selling off other slaves or setting them free; then choosing the money is hypocrisy (assuming emaciation principle).
For welfare that would be the realistic expectation that not signing up would prevent further theft.