Racism is a nonsense, malicious term

Author: Mesmer

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Barney
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@3RU7AL
If you actually can't explain the REASON why you think that disliking someone for a personal opinion they happen have is better (or worse) 
See above posts offering said requested explanation (in short: that race isn't a choice and it doesn't affect others, whereas beliefs are a choice and they do affect others), but since scrolling up for the reasons already given is too difficult for you...

What skin color you're born with, isn't a choice. Religion, political party, etc., are choices.

To hate someone for existing in a manner they did not choose to do, is guaranteed to be extremely petty. Whereas hating someone for (often really stupid) belief systems to which they actively choose to ascribe, might be warranted.

...

[Said actions] can be evil for sure, but again, at least those things are based on who you choose to be; not merely the conditions of your birth, [which is outside of their control].

...

Correlated, any the person may opt to change their sincerely held beliefs. Plus the expression of those beliefs may actually affects other people in a way that race never will.

As an example, I was raised by a neo-nazi cult which believes in the importance of murdering people, but I choose to reject it all.

I was born half-Irish, there is literally nothing I can do about that; and it doesn't really affect anyone else anyways.

The magnitude of difference should be self evident. If the police arrested someone for having freckles, that would be absurdly stupid, as it inflicts harm on one person, for zero benefit for anyone else. Whereas if they arrested someone for murdering other people, there is massive benefit to the greater community, no matter how hurt that killer feels for being discriminated against for their sincerely held beliefs.

...


Many times throughout history race (particularly being the wrong race in the wrong location) was against the law.

Race leads primarily to how easily someone sunburns, which affects the individual, but not the greater community.

Beliefs can lead to horrible outcomes for the community.

As an example, no sane person would hate Todd Akin for the conditions of his birth. That as a politician he wanted to decriminalize any rape resulting in pregnancy... His sincerely held beliefs make him repentant.

...

If you actually believe disliking someone for their race is no different than disliking them for their beliefs in support of rapists, please challenge me to a debate on the topic.

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@3RU7AL
You're doing that thing again where you ignore all refutation of your points - read - it'll do wonders for ya'
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@Theweakeredge
You're doing that thing again where you ignore all refutation of your points - read - it'll do wonders for ya'
Please be slightly more specific.
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@Barney
What skin color you're born with, isn't a choice. Religion, political party, etc., are choices.
This doesn't track.

Jews are born Jewish.

Hindus are born into a CASTE based on their skin-tone.

Geography (and skin-tone) is highly correlated with religious and political belief.

The magnitude of difference should be self evident
There's the "problem".

It's NOT "self-evident".

Hate breeds Hate, irregardless of the proximate excuse.

Your example conflates "belief" and "murder".

I'm trying to focus on "belief" specifically.

Everyone ALREADY agrees on "murder = bad".

I hope we can agree that arresting people for personal opinions (thought-police) is immoral.
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@3RU7AL
Ragnar discussion, he literally specified. 
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@3RU7AL
#87

Yep that's basically what I said. 


#88

There's no certainty that empathy will inspire any thing other than empathy.

And there's no certainty that sympathy will inspire anything other than sympathy.

Because people tend to be selfish, and guilt inspired altruism costs.

True altruists are very very thin on the ground.
Mesmer
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@rbelivb
In some of these examples I have ignored where you have misunderstood my words or simply said the opposite of what I said without much argument.
No.

You re-addressed the important points you dropped because I pointed out how crushing they were. You would have hemorrhaged points, if this were a debate. Also, the fact that you did re-address the points I made proves that you actually believe there were worth responding to, hence what you've said about these particular points you dropped shouldn't apply.

However, unlike Ragnar, at least you addressed the important points, and hence we continue the conversation.

Intelligence itself is not a behavior, but it determines behavior. Sweating is literally surface-level and has no implications for behavior.
Firstly, I 100% agree with your comment on intelligence. 

Secondly, it's super clear that I'm using a definition for behavior that differs from yours -- this is the crux of our disagreement on this point. I'm saying that I can use behavior to describe sweating because it's behavior, in a loose sense (sweating is an action). You argue that technically, behavior has a stricter definition. Unfortunately, Wikipedia doesn't define 'behavioral trait' and so I inferred that I could use this looser definition. About from you Reference.com citation, I couldn't find anything that states 'behavioral trait' is jargon with a strict meaning. **If** you could demonstrate to me that 'behavioral trait' is jargon, then I will concede this. 

Then I would challenge you to provide the absolute criteria of the terms "hatred" and "racial hatred" .
Hatred based on racial animus. 

This is a false dichotomy: either I make broad sweeping judgments about the comparative intelligence of different races, or I believe that all races have an exactly identical average IQ score. 
You didn't provide at least a third option to render this dichotomy false, hence it remains a valid dichotomy.

Then I don't understand why this argument would be important, unless it is being used to argue against things like affirmative action.
So for context, this is what I said to you: "Quote where I said or implied this or admit you're strawmanning."

The fact that you failed to provide any quotes proves that you have strawmanned me, intentionally or otherwise.

The first sentence of the wikipedia article on hatred uses the relative word "very" in the definition:

"Hatred is a very angry emotional response to certain people or ideas."

It would be up to interpretation whether someone is "very angry" at someone because of their race. ...
I don't know why you'd expect me to agree with another Wikipedia definition when I'm arguing one is nonsense.

You're right, "very" is up to interpretation.
Mesmer
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@Barney
See the opening of post #2.
Yeah all I see is a concession.

Thanks for coming.
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@Mesmer
Secondly, it's super clear that I'm using a definition for behavior that differs from yours -- this is the crux of our disagreement on this point. I'm saying that I can use behavior to describe sweating because it's behavior, in a loose sense (sweating is an action). You argue that technically, behavior has a stricter definition. Unfortunately, Wikipedia doesn't define 'behavioral trait' and so I inferred that I could use this looser definition. About from you Reference.com citation, I couldn't find anything that states 'behavioral trait' is jargon with a strict meaning. **If** you could demonstrate to me that 'behavioral trait' is jargon, then I will concede this. 
The form of your argument implies that, in order for a term to be meaningful, it must apply strictly under the most liberal use possible according to documented definitions of the term. My argument is that the definition of almost any term can be applied in such a loose way that would contradict common usage - especially in e.g. social sciences.

In other words, in my view it is impossible to constrain usage of these kind of terms by a strict jargon which would make their usage uniform. To rebut me on this, you could provide such a definition of "racial hatred".

Hatred based on racial animus. 
Animus is a synomym for hatred, so you have restated the term in its own definition.

Also, hatred is an emotion. What if we imagine a cold and calculating serial killer, who only kills victims of a certain race, but without any emotion? What if Hitler was such a psychopath, who did not feel any personal feelings of animus toward Jews? Then by your terms we would have no language to condemn such actions.

Further, this term does not apply to an insitution such as slavery, ethnic cleansing, or any other societal racial injustice. We would constantly need to be tying such institutions back to some theoretical emotion felt by the people responsible for them. Do you believe that such societal-level injustices are unimaginable, or that we should not need language to condemn them?

You didn't provide at least a third option to render this dichotomy false, hence it remains a valid dichotomy.
I can reject the entire construct, or even accepting it I can suspend judgment on what any group's IQ is.

So for context, this is what I said to you: "Quote where I said or implied this or admit you're strawmanning."

The fact that you failed to provide any quotes proves that you have strawmanned me, intentionally or otherwise.
It follows by implication, that if you think the behaviors of groups innately tend to be different, then their roles in society will naturally be different.

I don't know why you'd expect me to agree with another Wikipedia definition when I'm arguing one is nonsense.
You argued that the term itself is nonsense on the basis of the first sentence of its Wikipedia article.

The first sentence of the Wikipedia article on X isn't a valid definition -> X is nonsense
Mesmer
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@Theweakeredge
False. Often individuals of the same race are more varied genetically than between races 
Yeah so what you're essentially arguing is the classic 'more variation within than between'. It's a shame you haven't listened to the other side because this argument has been addressed plenty of times by race realists, and isn't even nearly the best to argue against them. Still, it's a good argument until you hear and understand the debunking.

The argument originates from Lewontin's 1972 paper Lewontin-The-Apportionment-of-Human-Diversity.pdf (philbio.org) . 

Firstly, what Lewontin says is literally true, but not technically true. There is more variation within than between human sub-species (races), but the same could be said for many other animals that actually *have* sub-species. Human fst value was said by Lewontin to be 6.3% (recent studies show 12%), but even if we give this 6.3%, animals with far less (e.g. Red Winged Black Bird: 1%) are considered to have sub-species 1-1.jpg (547×308) (thealternativehypothesis.org) .

So, if humans have a sufficient fst value to have sub-species (when compared with other animals), why did Lewontin make this argument? Lewontin said that 0.063 fst was "too low for races to be real" (never saying what would be high enough), and that racially classifying people was "mean and bigoted".

Lol.

So humans *are* genetically diverse to generate sub-species, but how is this done, and does this match human 'races?' As long as you use enough loci/SNP (roughly 100, but more is always better), you consistently receive consistent sub-species (race) classification for humans, even if you only have broad categories such as 'Asians', 'Africans' and 'Europeans': Human Population Genetic Structure and Inference of Group Membership (nih.gov) .

That's an abridged version of the race realist counter-argument, but hopefully you get the gist.

black people on the whole are the most genetically diverse group of people.
Depends on how you define 'black'. If you mean Africans, Australian Aboriginies, Pacific Islanders etc. then yes. If you mean just Africans, then maybe not.  That's why I haven't said "black people", but instead "African Americans" throughout the OP.

Any commonalities would therefore be a result of environmental conditions, if you were to say, begin selectively breeding humans then that environment would change drastically.
So what role do genetics play?

Ultimately, this would mean any studies or experiments conducted pre-natural selection to determine the strengths and weaknesses of races would not hold any water post, as any statistically major differences would likely be null and void. 
Let me get this straight: you believe that the environment is 100% responsible for  human differences?

In fact, when it comes to humanity, natural selection would be very difficult to pull of at all. First of all - as Ragnar pointed out - any list of traits are going to be subjective to whatever you come up with,
Ragnar got blown-out by that line of argument so hard that he dropped it completely.

But seriously, do you think being taller, prettier, stronger etc. isn't objectively better than the inverse, overall? Do you people really think that?

even if your list is objective with a certain goal in mind - that goal is ultimately subjective.
So how is evolution's goals subjective? You don't think people agree on what more attractive people look like?

Second, doing such a thing to human beings is begging to be fought back against, revolutions have been fought against for less buddy.
So because some humans are, according to humans, better than others, you want a revolution.

Wow.

Finally, my point, most studies conducted in such an environment as the human one, abound with variables that one can simple not account for most of them when determining groups specialities, that it would most likely result in very slow, if any, results. 
And yet you didn't list a single study.

So, yeah, no. That statement you so boldly proclaim is not correct. Please think through your positions more clearly. Your conclusion is reliant on assumptions and a lack of nuance in mind, more simply put, bullshit. 
Relax lol.

Mesmer
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@3RU7AL
When you say "racial differences" are you talking about "skin-tone differences" ?
...
OR someone might simply point out that while there may be some INCIDENTAL correlations between "skin-tone" and other human characteristics, "skin-tone" itself is not the most efficient indicator of individual fitness for any specific task.
That's part of it, but racial differences go well below the skin. I mean that different humans races are phenotypically different. Again: race =/= just "skin-tone".

It is impossible to discuss "I.Q." without mentioning the efficacy of the specific "I.Q." test used to make your hasty generalization.
Stating the truth about racial I.Q. differences is efficacious :)

Also, the generalization wasn't hasty. I've spent many hours exploring the topic of racial I.Qs.

For example, a native of Papua New Guinea might not score well on your SAT, but inversely, YOU probably wouldn't score well on their "hunting and survival" test.
So how is that not efficacious?

Black and Hispanic or Latino students routinely score lower on the math section of the SAT — a likely result of generations of exclusionary housing, education, and economic policy — which too often means that, rather than reducing existing race gaps, using the test in college admissions reinforces them. [**] 

Wealth doesn’t just impact SAT scores. According to a recent report from the Georgetown Center on Education and the Workforce, “Born to Win, Schooled to Lose,” being born wealthy is actually a better indicator of adult success in the U.S. than academic performance. “To succeed in America, it’s better to be born rich than smart,” [**]
So there's a 'genetic mesh' effect at play here, wherein genetics creates environments, which then makes the genetics better/worse over time etc. What happens is that African Americans and Hispanics are, on average, lower in the I.Q. department. This makes it more likely that they will do poorly at school. They then get worse jobs, on average. They then have kids who are born into lower SES than higher I.Q counterparts (on average). The cycle then repeats. There are other confounding variables (such as self-control, learning disabilities), but macrosocietally, the I.Q difference has an impact over time.

This in part explains the wealthy aspect, although we know that I.Q. and wealth have a rather weak correlation (0.22-0.28, depending on the study), so there certainly other factors involved in that. In life, there is certainly an element of luck in becoming wealthy. Racial bias will have an impact, but I don't see how we can determine how large.

However, we know that simply dropping poorly performing students into top-end schools doesn't at all change their poor school performance: School Quality as a Cause of Racial IQ Gaps – The Alternative Hypothesis . Clearly, there is a genetic component (I.Q. being a large part, but not the whole), when it comes to school performance.

As for exclusionary housing and economic policy, the article doesn't source or back the claim, and I don't know these topics, so I can't comment.

BUT LET'S GRANT YOUR PREMISE.  ARE YOU SUGGESTING WE SHOULD PRIMARILY SELECT JEWISH ASIANS FOR POSITIONS OF AUTHORITY ?
No.
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@Mesmer
See the opening of post #2.
Yeah all I see is a concession.

Thanks for coming.
If you're not a just a cowardly forum troll who doesn't believe their own words, issue the debate challenge.

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@3RU7AL
A HINDU is literally born into a CASTE based on your SKIN-TONE.
I think that sounds like the Hindus have long been discriminating against each other since pre-colonial eras. Third world trash. That said, exceptions exist. I'm pretty sure at least 1% of the population are closeted hindu apostates.

ANTI-PEER PRESSURE = ANTI-SOCIAL
I accept your first point but I reject your second point (quoted above). As a start, I think most of my ideas are not discussed in the local public. I don't discuss whether it's ethical to kill Jews (and this is something that is actually normal to talk about in Indonesia). I think it is completely inappropriate to talk about those kind of ideas in restaurants, bars and malls. We rely on rhetoric to cement ideas. Rhetoric comes from politicians and religious leaders. Peer-pressure originates (partly) from authority. As I understand your post, I assume you're talking about peer-pressure between normal blue-collar individuals. I think this relies on small talk, where relationships may foster without the need to discuss ideas. That kind of relationships may sound superficial but whatever.

Isn't an "enemy" simply a "rule breaker" at its core?
Of course. For example, Id suggest that  Romanians should worry about their neighboring rule breakers especially if they're muslim fundamentalists.


I mean, if you encountered a group of people who were technically strangers to you, but followed nearly all of your same beliefs and laws, would they be "friends" or "enemies"?
Friends. I'd note that there are ideas that are impossible to compromise. You could post a vehement critique of God and no one could do anything about it (assuming you live in the west). Try doing the same thing in Saudi Arabia, Egypt or Indonesia and you'll get harassed by a mob. 


It seems obvious that strangers we disagree with are automatically going to be labeled as "enemies".
Not to me if they endorse freedom of speech. My opinion. Plus, my problem isn't about their ideas. My problem (about them) stems from the fact that their ideas were created by the sense of community that they are subjected to at a given place. For example, an irreligious muslim turned jihadist for no apparent reason other than societal and cultural expectations.
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@3RU7AL
@zedvictor4
I saw your (3RU7AL) vids. I still think empathy requires more energy than sympathy. After all, you are trying to experience what another person is feeling. I'm assuming you (3RU7AL) and zedvictor agree with how empathy arises: personal connection. As Aristotle puts it, personal relationships/connections take time. unfortunately, I dont have infinite time. Granted, I am more likely to develop long-lasting connections with empathy. But I believe that's called friendship, not charity.

I believe sympathy bypasses this. Moreover, sympathy need not requires the devotion of "quality time" and "words of affirmations" to another person. For example, I think I understand what flood victims are going through. Next week, I will donate a hefty sum from my bank account without the need to empathize their suffering. In other words, I don't need a ticket to fly, meet and "feel" (empathize) with them.

I think sympathy saves time. It also generates more help than empathy. Empathy is overrated, imo. 

Personally? I value empathy more (obviously, I wrote earlier that it forms "long-lasting connections") but I just dont think it's a good idea to rely on it as a go-to response when encountering suffering.

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@Mesmer
I don't have the time for responding to all your bullshit, but I'll get the basics - while you are correct to say that that is the "origin" it is not the only source that comes to this conclusion. Also... what? No, we are talking about genetic diversity, not difference - they are not "sub-species" they are varied humans - the only difference genetically speaking is a level of melatin. Your racist is showing. 

Distribution of SNPs: A total of 146 SNPs were found in the total sample; 53 of them were observed only once (i.e., singletons) and 22 only twice (doubletons). The number of variant sites found in the African sample was 118, of which 68 (36 singletons, 15 doubletons, and 17 others) were not found in the Eurasian sequences (i.e., they were unique). In contrast, in the Eurasian sample only 78 variant sites were found and only 28 of them (17 singletons, 4 doubletons, and 7 others) were unique, though the combined sample size was twice the African sample size. Thus, beyond the 50 variants already observed in the African sample, the combined Eurasian sample contains in addition only 17 singletons and 11 nonsingleton variants. The high frequencies of singletons in the African and Eurasian samples are similar to those observed in other studies (Kaessmannet al. 1999Zhaoet al. 2000Yuet al. 2001). Note that in a neutral Wright-Fisher population with θ, the expected number of mutations of size i in a random sample of n sequences is θ/i (Fu 1995). So the number of singletons should be twice the number of doubletons and thrice the number of tripletons. In our total sample we found 53 singletons, 22 doubletons, and 7 tripletons. Therefore, there is an excess of singletons, which suggests a population expansion in the recent past.
What I'm saying is that typically, white and black people are more genetically similar than black people are to other black people. So most differences you view today, are indeed due to environmental changes. Have fun being a racist. 
Mesmer
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@MarkWebberFan
I'm curious. In your argument, where would you place exceptions to such a generalized claim? I believe attraction is contingent on time and place. I want to know where the exceptions lie in your argument. If I met a stranger in an unfamiliar environment, I am more likely to develop feelings of attraction toward him. Similarly, 2 travelling individuals have a better chance of developing a do-or-die romance together than 2 teachers living under the same school. I argue that this will happen irrespective of the target sample's genetic similarity (as you've mentioned).

I'm not sure where all the exceptions occur, or really any of them lol. All I know is that it's a generalized rule that, in a macrosocietal sense, becomes the mode for any group of people. 

Just to be clear, I'm talking about a general coming together as a result of similarity, which sometimes applies to romantic interests, but not always (e.g. friends, acquaintances). I'm in no way claiming that I know every exception to this rule.

Plus, I think infatuation is love and love requires a steady dose of pleasure.  What you're talking about in your reply to me sounds a lot like marriage. I believe that's completely different than infatuation.

I agree with you on this point.
 
Yes, the studies I found on sexual relationships were about marriage, hence the marriage slant.
 
I'd even go so far as to say that it's possible to have hot sex with someone and not like them at all (beyond their face/body). Hate sex is also a thing. I'd guess they're behaviors men are more likely to engaged in, though. I'm guessing these are some exceptions to the rule you asked me about before.
 

I think my learned values could very well originate from my genes as is my decision to remain an apostate. But, I'm not an evolutionary psychologist. Again, you're talking about marriage. Marriage requires careful compromise and calm, small doses of romance to keep it afloat. It merely requires small embers of happiness to survive its grueling and punishing outbursts of disagreements. Again, I appreciate the source, but I want you to include what happens when an armenian fell in love with a turk? I'm pretty sure they have nothing in common and their parents would probably threaten them at gunpoint if they choose to love one another.

They might be more similar than we think. They might not be similar at all. It's an anecdote. Who knows?
 
I think that counter-examples still run contrary to the study's results.

Yes but they're exceptions to the rule, it seems. Hard to say without studies on the exceptions.


Im confused. What are those genes you speak of? Is there an actual gene that correlates to religiousness?
 
As far as I know, the studies themselves assume a situational disposition, not a genetic disposition.
It certainly isn't one gene but a probably collection of them that influence religiousness. There are no studies that have 'found the gene' in regards to religiosity, but there has certainly been a truckload of inductive research that can measure the impact of genetics on religiosity (and vice versa because environment and genes play into each other). This article discusses the genetic impact the Catholic Church had on Western Civilization: The Catholic Church and Western Genetics | Ideas and Data (wordpress.com) . It also mentions Eastern Church and Islamic faith, too.

So this "situational disposition", over time, becomes a "genetic disposition" because the environment (which is influenced by religion) starts selecting for people who have more 'religious genes', and thus more religious genes are created.


For the record, I don't intend to disagree with how we're genetically built. What I want to know is where mathematicians or whatever you call them include extremely complicated phenomena like infatuation, altruism and trauma. Are they coded in our genes? Or are we built to have some sort of psychological resilience in which flexibility in attraction,friendship is encouraged?
So these are all built-in to the conclusion of 'similar people are more likely to like each other'. There is probably going to be flexibility, but there is clearly a rule to this (even if we don't know every specific, such as the weight 'trauma' has on this. Anyway, I'll address the individual points.

I addressed infatuation earlier.

With altruism, similarity allows the typical bias towards kin to be extended into larger groups, due to the larger group becoming more genetically similar to the individual. Evolutionarily speaking, people who would sacrifice themselves for people who have similar genes to them, allow those similar genes to be passed on (these people are like 4th cousins), and so altruism allows you to quasi-breed without actually breeding (hence why it was selected for).

As for trauma, I don't know a lot about it, so I can't comment.
Mesmer
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@3RU7AL
I'm just not sure that "racism" is any more "evil" than hating and or discriminating against someone for their religion (and or non-religion) and or hating people because they believe the earth is flat and or because they don't want to be forced to accept a "vaccine".
I wouldn't describe racism as something "evil" because that's a nebulous term.

The whole point of this thread is to remind people that racial differences are scientifically plausible. It's nonsense when discussing the scientific plausibility of racial differences is labelled as "racist", thereby preventing us from gauging the scientific plausibility of racial differences. Just as when listening to someone arguing for the scientific plausibility of homosexuality being genetic, you wouldn't logically accept "heretic" as a counter-argument ", you wouldn't accept the term "racist".

Why is it ok to make fun of people for one thing and NOT ok to make fun of them for some other thing??
Where was this done?



Mesmer
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@rbelivb
Just pointing out that you stopped responding just when I challenged you to provide an absolute criteria for "racial hatred". If you could not provide such a definition then your case really doesn't make much sense.
Yeah so there's these things called 'responsibilities', such as a job, paying bills etc. that take up time. I also have a lot of people I haven't responded to that have been waiting longer for a response. Sometimes I would rather go outside and enjoy my time that way, too.

Wait your turn.

Mesmer
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@zedvictor4
I didn't think this post was very good, so I initially ignored it. However, it got 5 likes, so I'll respond to it.

I am Caucasian by definition, but sweat freely.  Does that make me a racist?

Though, am I racist because I am not Korean.


No.
I don't think anyone would disagree with something this, which is why I made this thread.

Racism is about unreasonably discriminating on the basis of perceivable difference, and not about ones particular propensity to perspire.
So the parallel I later draw is that sweating propensity (to a large degree) is genetic. No one calls someone "racist" for saying that African Americans have a greater capacity to sweat. 

However, when I say that intelligence propensity is (to a large degree) genetic, that DOES count as "racist".

See why I used the sweating analogy?

Everyone discriminates internally but not everyone allows their internal judgements to manifest externally.
Sure.

For sure, there is currently a whole lot of malicious PC racism going on....But that's largely  based upon the possibility of a cash reward.....Fraud.
This is a large claim that isn't supported.

Interestingly my wife sweats very little....So does that suggest that she is Korean?
I have no idea how you think that I made an OP arguing that your sweating capacity determines race.

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@Barney
If you're not a just a cowardly forum troll who doesn't believe their own words, issue the debate challenge.
Lol relax, dude.

I've already posted my response to what you wrote. Again, if you don't think it addresses what you wrote, then you need to explain why, instead of restating your conclusion over and over. If you don't want to do that, then just stop @ing me lol.
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@rbelivb
The form of your argument implies that, in order for a term to be meaningful, it must apply strictly under the most liberal use possible according to documented definitions of the term.
I don't agree with this framing of "most liberal". It's more liberal than having one definition, but, again, you haven't provided any objectivity as to your definition being must-use jargon. I literally told you what was required to make your case ("**If** you could demonstrate to me that 'behavioral trait' is jargon, then I will concede this"). Instead, you've decided to dance around with framing that doesn't have objectivity.

My argument is that the definition of almost any term can be applied in such a loose way that would contradict common usage - especially in e.g. social sciences.
I could argue that your definition is "loose" and that we should therefore not accept it -- your point here is moot without providing the evidence that your definition is objectively jargon.

In other words, in my view it is impossible to constrain usage of these kind of terms by a strict jargon which would make their usage uniform. To rebut me on this, you could provide such a definition of "racial hatred".
You cannot simultaneously claim that:

(1) My definition is too loose
(2) Strict jargon is not possible with the term

And yet you do exactly that.

Animus is a synomym for hatred, so you have restated the term in its own definition.
You're close but not quite right. Hatred is something within the realm of intense disliking, whilst animus veers towards a personal grudge. That's why Merriam-Webster lists animosity (synonym for animus) as being only related to hatred Hatred Synonyms, Hatred Antonyms | Merriam-Webster Thesaurus .

Also, hatred is an emotion. What if we imagine a cold and calculating serial killer, who only kills victims of a certain race, but without any emotion? What if Hitler was such a psychopath, who did not feel any personal feelings of animus toward Jews? Then by your terms we would have no language to condemn such actions.
Firstly, that's not a great example because Hitler very openly showed animosity towards Jewish people.

Still, I'll respond in good faith to what you meant. I think race-based attacks are all spawned by this animus. That's why some write 1000 page manifestos of why they're about to attack a certain race. Serial killers tend to be indifferent to who they kill, and do so sometimes for the thrill of killing, or sometimes to get back at society. I've never heard of a serial killer killing a certain race of people without having hatred of said race -- that doesn't add up.

Further, this term does not apply to an insitution such as slavery, ethnic cleansing, or any other societal racial injustice. We would constantly need to be tying such institutions back to some theoretical emotion felt by the people responsible for them. Do you believe that such societal-level injustices are unimaginable, or that we should not need language to condemn them?
I'm going to preface this by saying slavery was a bad thing (people struggle to control themselves on this topic). The term shouldn't apply to slavery because that's not what slavery was about. Slaves were (sadly) functionally productions tools that produced value. In other words, instead of having a cotton-picking machine, you could get a human to do it. You weren't financially incentivized to racially abuse your slaves (although some slave owners would). Slavery was a business decision, not an attack on any race due to their race.

I think you need to re-think "ethnic cleansing" in terms of racial animus. It's very clearly designed to remove a particular race. If you had a liking or indifference towards a race, why would you want to mass remove it?

I'm not sure what other "societal racial injustice[s]" you'd apply to this, so I'll leave it there.

I can reject the entire construct, or even accepting it I can suspend judgment on what any group's IQ is.
You can't reject it lol. It's either: (1) racial I.Qs can differ, or (2) racial I.Qs cannot differ -- there is no third option.

You've moved the goalposts by now implying this was about a specific group's I.Q.

It follows by implication, that if you think the behaviors of groups innately tend to be different, then their roles in society will naturally be different.
Nope. That's faulty logic on your end. I've only argued that racial I.Qs differ. That is it. You're the one supplying anything further than that. Stop doubling down and just admit that you strawmanned me.

You argued that the term itself is nonsense on the basis of the first sentence of its Wikipedia article.

The first sentence of the Wikipedia article on X isn't a valid definition -> X is nonsense
Yeah the first sentence is nonsense and the other parts don't rectify this.

If I disagreed with the Catholic Church in 1500 for saying the Earth was round, and then was labelled a heretic, does that make me wrong?

If I disagreed with "non-racists" in 2021 for saying that human races have differing I.Qs, and the was labelled a racist, does that make me wrong?

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@Mesmer
To be honest.

I found the OP somewhat confusing .

So I gave a somewhat satirical reply.

I think perhaps others were of the same mind, and therefore appreciated my response.
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@Theweakeredge
I don't have the time for responding to all your bullshit,
You're yet to prove you're capable of responding. 

while you are correct to say that that is the "origin" it is not the only source that comes to this conclusion.
I already explained why this argument (more difference within than between) doesn't hold water. You haven't addressed that explanation. Just because someone else made the argument, that doesn't mean the argument is any better lol.

If it differs from Lewontin's argument, explain to me where.

Also... what? No, we are talking about genetic diversity, not difference - they are not "sub-species" they are varied humans - the only difference genetically speaking is a level of melatin.
I've already provided the Bamshad (2004) data that clearly shows that even super simple "African, European and Asian" delineations produces clear, racially distinct groups at only 100 loci/SNP.  If the only difference is "level of melatin", then how come they are nearly perfectly racially group with such simple groups? You need to address this data because it directly contradicts your bare assertion.

But we don't need to use complicated methods to dismiss your argument. We only need to observe the differences in racial skulls to see difference that isn't just "level of melatin": main-qimg-c6c858a15c33d9c1f1d3deb7bacb6f42 (602×708) (quoracdn.net) . If you don't like pictures for whatever reason, the science backs this claim up: "The race and sex of the human skull can be determined by craniometry" Durbar (2014)   Microsoft Word - 07. (pharmainfo.in) .

Your racist is showing. 
Racist is a nonsense, malicious term.

Distribution of SNPs: A total of 146 SNPs were found in the total sample; 53 of them were observed only once (i.e., singletons) and 22 only twice (doubletons). The number of variant sites found in the African sample was 118, of which 68 (36 singletons, 15 doubletons, and 17 others) were not found in the Eurasian sequences (i.e., they were unique). In contrast, in the Eurasian sample only 78 variant sites were found and only 28 of them (17 singletons, 4 doubletons, and 7 others) were unique, though the combined sample size was twice the African sample size. Thus, beyond the 50 variants already observed in the African sample, the combined Eurasian sample contains in addition only 17 singletons and 11 nonsingleton variants. The high frequencies of singletons in the African and Eurasian samples are similar to those observed in other studies (Kaessmannet al. 1999Zhaoet al. 2000Yuet al. 2001). Note that in a neutral Wright-Fisher population with θ, the expected number of mutations of size i in a random sample of n sequences is θ/i (Fu 1995). So the number of singletons should be twice the number of doubletons and thrice the number of tripletons. In our total sample we found 53 singletons, 22 doubletons, and 7 tripletons. Therefore, there is an excess of singletons, which suggests a population expansion in the recent past.
Explain to me in your own words what any of this means.

What I'm saying is that typically, white and black people are more genetically similar than black people are to other black people.
I know what you're saying because I've already addressed it LOL.

So most differences you view today, are indeed due to environmental changes. Have fun being a racist. 
Racist is a nonsense, malicious term.
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@Mesmer
I don't agree with this framing of "most liberal". It's more liberal than having one definition, but, again, you haven't provided any objectivity as to your definition being must-use jargon. I literally told you what was required to make your case ("**If** you could demonstrate to me that 'behavioral trait' is jargon, then I will concede this"). Instead, you've decided to dance around with framing that doesn't have objectivity.
A typical use of the word behavior is in relation to "the way in which someone conducts oneself," i.e. directed human action. To say that defining racism in terms of beliefs about differences in behavior is "nonsense" because of differences in sweating-rates, is in my view a fringe application of the concept of behavior. Likewise, if we said that two people were "behaving differently" although their intentional actions were identical, because their hair grew differently, or because their hearts beat at different speeds, this could be seen as a fringe use of the term also. Therefore, if someone called a psychological theory about behavior nonsense because it did not capture differences in hair growth or heart rates, this would not be a valid objection.

You're close but not quite right. Hatred is something within the realm of intense disliking, whilst animus veers towards a personal grudge. That's why Merriam-Webster lists animosity (synonym for animus) as being only related to hatred
If I were to list various instances of "racism" / "racial hatred" and asked whether these constituted a "personal grudge against a race" it would surely come down to your own opinion which instances you would deem appropriate and which not. Many leftists would claim that Charles Murray's motivation for writing his books was a personal racial animus, while those on the right will say that Critical Race Theory advocates have a personal grudge against the white race. How do we determine who is right?

Still, I'll respond in good faith to what you meant. I think race-based attacks are all spawned by this animus. That's why some write 1000 page manifestos of why they're about to attack a certain race. Serial killers tend to be indifferent to who they kill, and do so sometimes for the thrill of killing, or sometimes to get back at society. I've never heard of a serial killer killing a certain race of people without having hatred of said race -- that doesn't add up.
It seems that by your standard, the only racial disparity we should have tools to condemn, are examples involving people being murdered, purely and explicitly for the reason of an emotional reaction to their race, and anything short of this is deemed trivial nonsense.

The term shouldn't apply to slavery because that's not what slavery was about. Slaves were (sadly) functionally productions tools that produced value. In other words, instead of having a cotton-picking machine, you could get a human to do it. You weren't financially incentivized to racially abuse your slaves (although some slave owners would). Slavery was a business decision, not an attack on any race due to their race.
Yet slavery in the US was racialized. What should we call that? Of course, many slave owners did harbour deep racial resentment, but what if they had been cold and calculating? Your argument seems to be that we should not use critical language to describe the racial dimension of this at all.

I think you need to re-think "ethnic cleansing" in terms of racial animus. It's very clearly designed to remove a particular race. If you had a liking or indifference towards a race, why would you want to mass remove it?
But this is the problem as I laid out above: your attribution of "racial animus" depends totally on your own personal opinion. If we asked advocates of ethnic cleansing throughout history, they would say that they were not acting out of emotion, but that their policies were totally necessary and unavoidable. Who should we believe? Will we need to administer psychological tests to determine people's emotional state before we can condemn any of these policies?

Besides that, I was not claiming that Hitler or anyone involved in these examples did not in fact feel hatred. It was an hypothetical or counterfactual - "what if" this were the case - to demonstrate the limits of your definition.

You can't reject it lol. It's either: (1) racial I.Qs can differ, or (2) racial I.Qs cannot differ -- there is no third option.
I agree that average racial IQ scores likely are not identical down to the last decimal. 

Nope. That's faulty logic on your end. I've only argued that racial I.Qs differ. That is it. You're the one supplying anything further than that. Stop doubling down and just admit that you strawmanned me.
I will decline that because I do think your arguments have conservative implications. You basically seem to be stripping away any language we could use to criticize racial imbalances or injustices beyond the most extreme examples of explicitly racially motivated hate crimes. You prefer personal criticism of the motivations of individuals over broad social critiques - this is deeply conservative.
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@Mesmer
...becomes the mode for any group of people

Just to be clear, I'm talking about a general coming together as a result of similarity, which sometimes applies to romantic interests, but not always (e.g. friends, acquaintances). I'm in no way claiming that I know every exception to this rule.
Is this measured or spontaneous?

For example, if I'm learning piano for the first time, I would classify my first training as measured. Me learning the music keys would be excruciatingly painful as a first-time music learner. I think measured activities require a lot of work. That's different from a spontaneous act of drinking and getting drunk on a random night. 

So, is the general coming together as a result of similarity spontaneous or measured?

Yes, the studies I found on sexual relationships were about marriage, hence the marriage slant.
 
I'd even go so far as to say that it's possible to have hot sex with someone and not like them at all (beyond their face/body). Hate sex is also a thing. I'd guess they're behaviors men are more likely to engaged in, though. I'm guessing these are some exceptions to the rule you asked me about before.
What? I think that sounds more of a genetic than behavior kind of thing. Not to interject a stereotype but women gossip about things and men talk about sex. But I'm not talking about actions borne from laziness or "spur of the moment". I'm talking about things that require plenty of thought. A coptic christian choosing to love a baathist muslim would definitely require more work than a typical high school romance or whatever.


They might be more similar than we think. They might not be similar at all. It's an anecdote. Who knows?
Forethought of generalized rules without exceptions can never be made into actual laws of nature. My opinion.
 
Yes but they're exceptions to the rule, it seems. Hard to say without studies on the exceptions.
Well, your best guess? Or do exceptions mean nothing to you?

...there are no studies that have 'found the gene' in regards to religiosity, but there has certainly been a truckload of inductive research that can measure the impact of genetics on religiosity (and vice versa because environment and genes play into each other). This article discusses the genetic impact the Catholic Church had on Western Civilization: The Catholic Church and Western Genetics | Ideas and Data (wordpress.com) . It also mentions Eastern Church and Islamic faith, too.
I think thats a spurious correlation. Granted, there's an argument that arab nationalists draw a lot from islam in their hatred of western values.  I think they consider nationalism as interchangeable with islam. So, If I'm an arab, the best argument in favor of this is that over time, i develop some form of genetic disposition that allows me to associate Islam and nationalism. That disposition then becomes hereditary, but is still probably open to manipulation. Well, okay not sure what to make of that other than to say that I have very little faith in spurious correlations. I'll check your source when I get home.


So this "situational disposition", over time, becomes a "genetic disposition" because the environment (which is influenced by religion) starts selecting for people who have more 'religious genes', and thus more religious genes are creat
Fine. I'm generally pessimistic so I don't suppose I can disagree with that.
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@rbelivb
this is deeply conservative.
Black race of USA tends to be more conservtive, but because republicans tend to be more racists, USA black population is forced to side with democrats because of republicans being a greater threat to civility, justice { fair play } leaves blacks little alternative options.

Brown-ing of humanity is more and more combinations of the following set:

Primarily White { European and isolated by mountain valley eastern origins -- some straight black hair, tho not to degree of some others from equaltorial lattitudes }

Primarily Red { western USA native indians -- variations of brown/copper across USA  --straight  black hair  -- see also Inuit Eskimoes }

Black { kinky savannah hair African origins --- aborigines Australia }

Dark { straight black hair } indian, indonesia etc

Yellow { asian --- minor darker skin tone and major lighter skin tone -- see also Inuti Eskimoes  }.


The greatest differrence found in all cultures is man and woman.

Bible = Patriarchy

Earth = Matriarchy





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@ebuc
Black race of USA tends to be more conservtive
Since they are a minority group with a higher population living in poverty, there will be a high reliance on social integration of that group - a tight knit sense of community with at least a certain set of values which are held in common. This predicts that these groups will be more religious and conservative.
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@rbelivb
...a tight knit sense of community with at least a certain set of values which are held in common. This predicts that these groups will be more religious and conservative....
Rings true to some degree, but probably more so for hispanics/latinos.

Earths environment is the womb from which we 80% water biologics incubate in.

It is race between human empathy, technological advance and mind over matter, global integrity, as well as,  a race to end racism, bigotry, unnecessary lies,  less significant truths, distracting  from more significant truths, and  and immoral false narrative that diverge from truth.

If none of these violate any cosmic principles or physical laws, then it is possible humanity can still prevent mass-suffering, --or extinction--- if if the environmental PPM of greenhouse gases is already over some limit in the atmosphere.

The barbarians are at the gates, and we are the barbarians.  Crazy is as crazy does is what Zed-Vector would say, if he were here.
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@rbelivb
...will be a high reliance on social integration of that group - a tight knit sense of community with at least a certain set of values which are held in common. This predicts that these groups will be more religious and conservative.
Fascinating. 
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@rbelivb
typical use of the word behavior is in relation to "the way in which someone conducts oneself," i.e. directed human action. To say that defining racism in terms of beliefs about differences in behavior is "nonsense" because of differences in sweating-rates, is in my view a fringe application of the concept of behavior. Likewise, if we said that two people were "behaving differently" although their intentional actions were identical, because their hair grew differently, or because their hearts beat at different speeds, this could be seen as a fringe use of the term also. Therefore, if someone called a psychological theory about behavior nonsense because it did not capture differences in hair growth or heart rates, this would not be a valid objection.
In the Merriam-Webster definition you provided (a credible source, for sure), we find another definition that support my case:

"anything that an organism does involving action and response to stimulation"

So, your label of "fringe" literally exists with the same credence as your other definition, thus generating a contradiction in your reasoning for "typical use". 

In any case, my point in the OP was to implicitly agree that yes, different sweating rates of races *shouldn't* be considered "racist". However, when we see differences in I.Qs of different races, despite in your own words that *not* being "behavior", you shouldn't be ascribing anyone who comments on racial I.Q gaps as "racist". 

Again, even if I grant your "typical use" definition (I don't), this still generates a contradiction in your argument's consistency. You cannot have both:

(1) Sweating not be subject to "racism", due to it not being a "behavior"
(2) Racial I.Q differences being subject to "racism", despite it not being a "behavior"

If I were to list various instances of "racism" / "racial hatred" and asked whether these constituted a "personal grudge against a race" it would surely come down to your own opinion which instances you would deem appropriate and which not. Many leftists would claim that Charles Murray's motivation for writing his books was a personal racial animus, while those on the right will say that Critical Race Theory advocates have a personal grudge against the white race. How do we determine who is right?
[...]
But this is the problem as I laid out above: your attribution of "racial animus" depends totally on your own personal opinion. If we asked advocates of ethnic cleansing throughout history, they would say that they were not acting out of emotion, but that their policies were totally necessary and unavoidable. Who should we believe? Will we need to administer psychological tests to determine people's emotional state before we can condemn any of these policies?

So you're right in implying it's difficult to assess a "personal grudge against a race" for being a motivation.

However, that doesn't invalidate the fact that something is or is not "racism"/"racial hatred" -- this exists independently.

Off the cuff, I don't know whether Charles Murray or CRT advocates are "racist"/"racially hateful" or not. I'd have to assess the evidence either way, and even then I personally might not get it right. Inductively determining intention isn't an easy thing to do, but that doesn't mean it depends "totally on your own personal opinion". You can refer to facts and such to determine this.

Still, this predilection is superior to the current nonsense term "racist" is.

It seems that by your standard, the only racial disparity we should have tools to condemn, are examples involving people being murdered, purely and explicitly for the reason of an emotional reaction to their race, and anything short of this is deemed trivial nonsense.
I only responded to your comment on serial killers. I don't think that's the limit of people showing racial animus and that anything short of murder cannot be racial animosity.

Yet slavery in the US was racialized. What should we call that? Of course, many slave owners did harbour deep racial resentment, but what if they had been cold and calculating? Your argument seems to be that we should not use critical language to describe the racial dimension of this at all.
I'd argue that slavery was racialized in the US for many reasons, but that slavery was in itself didn't require racial animus. This is a complicated topic that requires its own thread because a lot of the relevant evidence is inductive. So, I'd question this premise of your question before I answer "what should we call that?"

I'd also push back on your assertion that "many slave owners did habour deep racial resentment", because there simply isn't sufficient evidence for that. The odd anecdote here and there, which can be dubious in themselves (there's a lot of money today in pushing for reparations), isn't going to outweigh the data that was collected. Again, this is a topic that requires its own thread, but this time because I think the current view of US slavery is horribly wrong.

Btw the "cold and calculating" part only applied to the serial killer comment.

I agree that average racial IQ scores likely are not identical down to the last decimal. 
Excellent. 

We didn't have to devolve into 'hurr hurr racist' like some other users do.

We didn't have to imply that this is a conservative viewpoint that is going to put blacks back into slavery.

It's an attempt at a scientific fact. That is all.

I will decline that because I do think your arguments have conservative implications. You basically seem to be stripping away any language we could use to criticize racial imbalances or injustices beyond the most extreme examples of explicitly racially motivated hate crimes. You prefer personal criticism of the motivations of individuals over broad social critiques - this is deeply conservative.
You still haven't quoted me. You're just further proving that you have indeed strawmanned me.

Whether or not races have differing I.Qs is a matter for science and data-based research, not political ideology zealotry. Trying to sledgehammer partisan terms ("deeply conservative", "different roles" for African Americans), without being able to quote me on where I've made these claims, makes you look like a goose.