Example:Thomas, a disciple of Christ.
Thomas had witnessed with his own eyes “miracles” performed by Jesus such as raising - back to life, the dead 4 days old rotting corpse of Lazarus the friend that “Jesus loved” and wept over. (No mention of Jesus ever shedding a single tear over “the greatest prophet" his cousin John the Baptist).
Jesus, Thomas’ rabbi , is crucified, dead and entombed. And then,depending on which version we choose to believe, Jesus first appears either to, Mary, or some Marys’ or Peter or Cleopas etc? But suddenly, Thomas,on hearing about the once “dead” corpse of Christ walking around and being alive again, refused to believe Jesus is indeed alive after the crucifixion and after laying for three days in a private tomb belonging to a rich friend in private walled garden..(Joseph of Arimathea obviously won’t be entering into the kingdom of heaven. Matthew 19:24).
Thomas did not believe it was truly him despite being told, twice!, prior to the incident by Jesus son of god, that he would rise again in three days.!? And despite his own witnessing of the miracle of miracles the“raising of Lazarus”?. Why follow a man right up until his death, hanging on every word of all his preaching that he will rise from the dead, then suddenly, and without explanation, refuse to believe what he was being told by Mary, or the Mary’s or Peter or Cleopas or anyone? There is no indication given before this time that Thomas had any reason to disbelieve or “doubt” his master god/Jesus.
Oddly, when Mary – the first to see him- tried to touch Jesus on seeing him in the private garden owned by his rich friend, he refused her,but when Thomas required physical proof Jesus invited Thomas to touch him and feel the wounds in his body, as to offer physical proof.
As is usual with these ambiguous half stories we are never told what happened there-after and we are simply left with Jesus saying: , “Because you have seen me, you have believed; blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed.”.John20:29.What does that actually mean? Can we only take that to mean believed through faith alone and without a single piece of hard physical evidence?
The point is, why doesn’t god extend and afford the same privilege of proof to humans alive today?
Those today that doubt gods/Jesus' existence are no different than Thomas,requiring physical proof and he was a disciple of Jesus himself. If Thomas had been born just a year on from the crucifixion, or even living today, would he be refused a place in the heavenly paradise because he would not believe for the lack of physical proof?
Is it too much to ask and question? I am often accused by Christians of“mocking and humiliating” them (all untrue ), but at least I am not killing them. Yet Paul made it his mission to seek out and destroy Christians although he was born after the death and accession of Christ. Then one day, without even asking never mind believing, in a flash he got a visit from god himself !!!!!? Again, how this happened also varies depending on who’s “gospel truth” one chooses to believe, but it was an appearance by the lord god himself, all the same... according to the bible.
Why isn’t Jesus willing to show the disbelievers today the same degree of physical proof? Why should we be treated any different from Thomas –a disciple - and Paul a disbelieving persecutor and murderer of early Christians?
