a thing which doesn't exist produces an equal amount of evidence as a thing which does exist but which we cannot demonstrate to exist.
Explain and substantiate.
No they do not please see above for an explanation of why.
Yes they do. You're claiming that you acknowledge things can exist without being tested for, while simultaneously arguing those things cannot be claimed to exist or "expressed" as existent without being tested. Now if we apply your standard, how are you able to substantiate your first claim without conducting any tests? In your own words (in the absence of tests): "Otherwise, how do we know it exists?" Your statements contradict. Your standard through your own tacit admission is limited.
You mean like claiming something exists which you cannot demonstrate simply because it cannot be disproved?
No, I mean by arguing that a claim is true by virtue of the fact that it hasn't been proven false. One can claim whatever one wants.
Independent and repeatable (preferably peer reviewed) scientific demonstration of the proposition in question.
How and why does this standard apply to the spiritual?
Because your experience, as is mine, is inextricably subjective. Either we can test for the presence of a thing or we cannot.
Strawman argument with the use of an ad hoc redefinition. I'm not applying the term "presence," which is placement in a given space. I'm applying the term "exists," to which I've already provided the description. Second, why does it need to be tested for?
If we cannot then it necessarily either exists but we cannot demonstrate its existence or it does not exist.
This statement is unsubstantiated. This is what you must demonstrate. You've only redundantly claim it.
If we cannot test for or detect something we should not maintain a belief in said thing.
Why?
That is why existence needs to be tested for.
Why does experience's being inextricably subjective necessitate a test for existence?
That is the consensus of neurologists.
Irrelevant; consensus does not inform truth.
It is a sufficient explanation and it is observable and testable in reality.
You have to demonstrate the pertinence of a testable explanation.
There is observably a measurable physical correlation.
Cum hoc ergo propter hoc. Correlation is not causation.
If you wish to claim some extra component it is you who must demonstrate your claim.
It's not my obligation to prove your arguments "wrong." It's your obligation to prove them "right." You claim that Concepts have a physical explanation. Substantiate.
Seeing is irrelevant to proving the existance of a proposition. Our eyes can be deceived.
Hence I included "observe."
I have had a CAT scan and I can inform you with a high degree of confidence that my brain is in my head.
You observed an image. Did you observe your brain?
Yes. I will just have to settle for a high degree of confidence in the issue given my apparent inability to have objective certainty on any given issue except that I am experiencing something.
So your tests are subject to your confidence?
Just the opposite. Even "reality" may not exist. I accept our shared reality as a convenience only and only because it is the only "reality" that I can percieve.
If it is the only reality you can perceive, then why do you ponder that it "may not exist"? Are you capable of observing beyond your capacity to perceive? How so?
It would be far more accurate to say that I have confidence in the efficacy of the scientific method in separating fact from fiction only because of the physical effects on our world and our standard of life.
How is your "confidence" not fictitious especially if it precedes that which you "accept"?
Also a method, or set of behaviors, is an existent part of the physical world. The scientific method is not immaterial it is physical and the proof of its efficacy precedes my belief.
No it doesn't. You used your confidence in explaining the reason tests are necessary (and efficacious.) How then does the efficacy precede your "confidence"? And the scientific method is immaterial; it's a "method."
This seems like a non sequitur to me. I am uncertain how you have determined that there is nothing that is objective or why that would lead to the ability to know everything let alone the necessity.
"Seem" is not an argument; objectivity is incoherent because it necessitates rationalizations independent of one's observation.
I have explained why I do not accept that perceived = existent
You don't have to accept it. It needs only be consistent with the description I offered.
Your definition of percieved is to be aware, understand, identify and/or observe. Unless you can demonstrate that any one has ever become aware of understood identified or observed any actual
I'm aware of God; I identify God (obviously through his name); I've observed God. There: I've demonstrated a perception of God.
I do not accept that this is true
My argument does not require that you "believe."
This conclusion does not follow from your dubious premises.
Your doubting my premises does not make them dubious. My argument is consistent with my description; they are not consistent with your descriptions. And your descriptions aren't relevant.
Please feel free to reformulate your argument in light of these issues
There's no need to reformulate my argument. The only thing that needs reformulating is your understanding that my argument is not beholden to your understanding of existence. If you cannot demonstrate an inconsistency in my argument--i.e. my premises and conclusion, then I'll consider your challenge over.