Sunday School: Day 1

Jesus even said he was sent only to save the Jews.

Matthew 15:24 

Then Jesus said to the woman, “I was sent only to help God's lost sheep—the people of Israel.” 

But that did not stop the Christians from stealing salvation from the Jews.

Are you of the same mind as Augustine whom you quoted above in relation to original sin?  And if you are, how is it then that you say people are born with a free will - while maintaining their sinful nature? Isn't it true that the Catholic Church teaches that such original sin is negated or washed away with baptism? If that is your position, would you hold that people who are not baptised, do not have such free will?

The point is God gave salvation to all those people who are of the "Israel of God". It is for persons who have circumcised hearts, not necessarily circumcised foreskins. 

At Baptism, the guilt of original sin is indeed washed away and sanctifying grace is imparted, making us adopted children of God. However, concupiscence (the inclination to sin) remains, so we still struggle with temptation. This does not mean the unbaptized lack free will; all human beings retain the natural capacity to make moral decisions. Baptism restores us to a state of grace that empowers our will in a deeper, supernatural way but does not create free will where it did not exist before.

In fact, some scholars point to the Pauline letters for evidence that early Christians were baptized in the name of Jesus, not the Trinity. The Catholic Encyclopedia, for example, states that "The baptismal formula was changed from the name of Jesus Christ to the words Father, Son, and Holy Spirit by the Catholic Church in the second century."

Good point.

Which for me raises another point, Shila.

What was the original invocation in the days of John the Baptist?

What invocation did John the Baptist use when baptised Christ?

And what was the invocation that John the Baptist was using before Jesus even appeared on the scene?

Good point.

Which for me raises another point, Shila.

What was the original invocation in the days of John the Baptist?

What invocation did John the Baptist use when baptised Christ?

And what was the invocation that John the Baptist was using before Jesus even appeared on the scene?

John the Baptist, who lived in the wilderness of Judea, was a prophet and a preacher who prepared people for Jesus, the Messiah.

So we are led to believe.  Bit its not as straightforward as they will have us believe. John was a resident of Bethany near the Jordan. The reference to "the desert" also called the "wilderness" means Galilee.

The point is God gave salvation to all those people who are of the "Israel of God". It is for persons who have circumcised hearts, not necessarily circumcised foreskins. 

The covenant of circumcision still stands as written.

The commandment to circumcise was a covenant made with Abraham and is recorded in Genesis 17:10–14, reading: 'And God spoke to Abraham saying: … This is my covenant which you shall keep between me and you and thy seed after you — every male child among you shall be circumcised. '

Matthew 5:17

“Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them.

Jews still honour the covenant by continuing to circumcise their foreskin. Christians don’t have a covenant with God.

Jesus did not form a new covenant with Christians with his death. His death was a result of nonbelievers.

The NT sign of the covenant is baptism.  Same as Jesus also said this is the new covenant - when he ate the bread and drank the wine - referring to himself at the last supper.  the New Covenant which is what Christians - whether Jew or Gentile follow. Circumcision, the old sign, puts one under the law. Baptism puts one under grace.  

In fact, some scholars point to the Pauline letters for evidence that early Christians were baptized in the name of Jesus, not the Trinity. The Catholic Encyclopedia, for example, states that "The baptismal formula was changed from the name of Jesus Christ to the words Father, Son, and Holy Spirit by the Catholic Church in the second century."

The Church has always recognized Christ’s instruction in Matthew 28:19—“baptize them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit”—as foundational. References in Acts to baptism “in the name of Jesus” indicate baptism by Christ’s authority rather than a competing formula. Early Christian writings such as the Didache (late first or early second century) likewise attest to Trinitarian baptismal practice. Scholarly consensus supports that the Church did not “change” the baptismal formula in the second century; rather, it continued the command given by Jesus, even if early Scripture passages described baptism in the context of His name alone.

John’s authority to baptize came ultimately from God, in fulfillment of his prophetic mission as “the voice of one crying in the wilderness” (Is 40:3; Lk 3:2–3). While John was indeed of priestly lineage (his father, Zechariah, was a Temple priest), the New Testament depicts his baptism primarily as a divine calling for repentance and preparation for the Messiah, rather than as a continuation of Old Testament priestly rites. Although the Old Covenant does not feature baptism as a formal sacrament, it does foreshadow purifying washings (see Lev 16:4, Num 19), which John’s ministry brought to a new stage by pointing to Christ. Finally, Jesus’ crucifixion by no means nullified His authority or any symbolic baptism He received; His Passion and Resurrection are what give true meaning and saving power to all Christian baptism.

John did indeed have divine authority as a prophet, commissioned to prepare the way of the Lord (Is 40:3; Lk 3:2–3). His beheading resulted from condemning King Herod’s immoral relationship (Mk 6:17–18), not from baptizing. Christ’s fulfillment of the Law (Mt 5:17) did not “pervert” or “abolish” it. He brought its underlying reality to completion, offering Himself as the once-for-all sacrificial Lamb (Heb 9:12–14). In this view, both John’s baptism of repentance and Jesus’ self-offering were God-ordained developments of what the Old Testament foreshadowed, not human intrusions upon it.

Does this clear things up?