Is the Trinity mentioned in the Old Testament?
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The premise of this debate is to discuss whether the Trinity (the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit) is mentioned in the Old Testament, whether together or separately. Are the three persons of the Godhead mentioned in the Old Testament? When I say "mentioned," I am specifically talking about indirect references, foreshadowings, and typologies, not just explicit mentions. This will help avoid semantic arguments about the term.
That being said, the purpose of this debate is not to crown a 'Winner' and a 'Loser.' The intended purpose is for anybody who may read this debate to learn and broaden the scope of their knowledge with regards to this topic.
Terms:
Trinity: three distinct persons in one Godhead
Rules:
When using the Bible as a reference, we will use the NRSV Bible for ease.
We will be discussing the Trinity as accepted by the Catholic Church, as different denominations have different beliefs regarding the Trinity.
No new arguments will be made in the last round.
Then God said, "Let us make humankind in our image, according to our likeness; ... (Genesis 1:26)
Then the Lord God said, "See, the man has become like one of us, knowing good and evil; and now, he might reach out his hand and take also from the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever" (Genesis 3:22)
"Come, let us go down, and confuse their language there, so that they will not understand one another's speech" (Genesis 11:7)
Draw near to me, hear this! From the beginning I have not spoken in secret, from the time it came to be I have been there. And now the Lord God has sent me and his spirit. Thus says the Lord, your Redeemer, the Holy One of Israel: I am the Lord your God, who teaches you for your own good, who leads you in the way you should go. (Isaiah 48:16-17)
For you are our father, though Abraham does not know us and though Israel does not acknowledge us; you, O Lord, are our father; our Redeemer from of old is your name (Isaiah 63:16)
Have we not all one father? Has not one God created us? Why then are we faithless to one another, profaning the covenant of our ancestors? (Malachi 2:10)
Do not lay your hand on the boy or do anything to him; for now I know that you fear God, since you have not withheld your son, your only son, from me. (Genesis 22:12)
Who has ascended to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the waters in a garment? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is the person's name? And what is the name of the person's child? (Proverbs 30:4)
The spirit of the Lord shall rest on him, the spirit of wisdom and understanding, the spirit of counsel and might, the spirit of knowledge and the fear of the Lord. His delight shall be in the fear of the Lord. (Isaiah 11:2-3)
Then the Lord said, "My spirit shall not abide in mortals for ever, for they are flesh; their days shall be on hundred and twenty years." (Genesis 6:3)
- Genesis 1:26
- Genesis 1:2
- John 1:1-3
- Genesis 3:22
- Genesis 11:7
- Isaiah 48:16-17
- Isaiah 63:16
- Malachi 2:10
- Luke 2:9
- Genesis 22
- Genesis 22:12
- Judges 13:20
- Revelation 22:8-9
- Proverbs 30:4
- Isaiah 11:2-3
- Isaiah 61:2
- Genesis 6:3
Thank you, Strawbbycake, for taking the time to read through my points, reflect on them, and craft a response. To stay within the character limit, I will keep the introduction brief and proceed to the main arguments.
I read through the whole chapter ... However, what I didn’t find in that chapter was anything that could lead to an inference that “us” could mean the Trinity. ... Reading that text on its own without any previous beliefs wouldn’t lead to such an inference. In other words, it’s not strong enough. “Us” could mean the Trinity. But it could also refer to God and the 24 elders in Revelations. It could also refer to God and his angels. It could mean anything really.
So God created humankind in his image, in the image of God he created them; male and female he created them. (Genesis 1:27)
Genesis 3:22 also has “us,” like you said. But this “us” is mentioned once, and only used in that verse with no further context. Again, just like the verse in Genesis 1, it’s too vague for such an inference. ... You would need a strong belief in the Trinity already to make such a conclusion. ... Basically what I’m trying to say is if you believe in something, any verse can be used as evidence to support that belief.
I believe Isaiah 48: 16-17 was actually Isaiah talking, not Jesus.
I don’t think this spirit is the Holy Spirit, but what Isaiah may have meant is that God sent me to you (northern Israel) and He is with me. God has been referred to as a “spirit” before, in Genesis 1 where the translation says “while a wind from God swept over the face of the waters.” “Wind from God” was supposed to be “spirit of God,” ... God also mentions His spirit, meaning His presence
You did cite Genesis 22:12 as evidence that the Old Testament is alluding to God the Son as Christians know it. Verses 15 and 16 suggest the angel was saying what God told him to say, like Isaiah did.“The angel of the Lord called to Abraham a second time from heaven, and said, ‘By myself I have sworn, says the Lord: Because you have done this, and have not withheld your son, your only son,” (Genesis 22:15-16)The word “I,” “me,” anything to suggest first person and to refer to oneself was only followed by “says the Lord,” from this angel. So it can be inferred then that verse 12 was God speaking, because they both refer to Abraham not withholding Isaac. And verses 15-16 appear to be a continuation of verse 12.
If the angel of the Lord in Judges 13 was Jesus, why did He say “…for the boy shall be a nazirite to God from birth?” (Judges 13:4) and not “the boy shall be a nazirite to me?” Why didn’t this angel of the Lord, if He is the same one from Genesis, use “me” instead of “God” or “Lord” like He did last time?
Then Manoah realized that it was the angel of the Lord. And Manoah said to his wife, “We shall surely die, for we have seen God.” (Judges 13:21-22)
There’s a possibility that Agur, the person who wrote Proverbs 30, was asking genuine questions. They aren’t rhetorical.
If God is saying “my” spirit, then it would make sense if it’s referred to as the spirit of the Lord by someone who doesn’t own that spirit. If it’s God’s spirit, meaning Himself, then the spirit of the Lord would mean God’s spirit. And God’s spirit would be God Himself. It kinda sounds weird when I type it out, but humans often attribute our body to ourselves, to basically be us. That we’re the body. For example, we don’t say, “the eyes of your body are blue.” We say “your eyes are blue.” If you believe you are a soul in a body, that’s false, souls don’t have eyes, bodies do, and you're a soul, not body. But our identity isn’t just our soul, but our body as well. Your body is you, and so it can be argued God’s spirit is Him. Isaiah wouldn’t say “my spirit” nor “God’s spirit.” The former because that’s false, and the latter because apostrophes to indicate possession weren’t a Hebrew language feature.
In this debate, we will not be arguing about the validity of the Trinity itself. We will solely focus on whether the Trinity (or the Persons of the Trinity) is mentioned in any form in the Old Testament. According to Catholic doctrine, the Trinity comprises three distinct Persons — God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit — sharing one divine nature [1]. In other words, the Trinity is three distinct persons in one Godhead. This is the definition we will be using for the Trinity.
Since you said, "Since it is and it isn't, this is a good topic," did you like how the debate turned out?
That sucks. Thank you for assuming the side of the opposition. Good luck!
Yes I am a christian, i realized my stupid mistake when you published your argument. I thought you were taking the con side, so that was why I joined the debate, so I could argue for the pro side, which wasnt what happened.
I do agree with your point of view, Jesus was in the Bible everywhere, and perhaps even the Holy Spirit had a few mentions in the Old Testament as well.
But that wouldnt be a fun debate. So I will assume the point of view of the Muslim or atheist just for this debate.
I was not expecting that Pastafarianism punchline at the end. It definitely caught me off-guard and got a chuckle out of me.
I’d say the big reason is the messiah hadn’t been born yet…hard to write books anbout… even while there were prophecies.
As for poly vs mono… it’s a way they used to say they’re different, but it was also stupid from a language standpoint. Angels exist, if you believe this you’re probably a polytheist. Yes, there’s a high god, but that doesn’t equate to denial of the power of the angels (or any other supernatural beings besides God).
Actually, I can name one religion which might truly be monotheistic… Pastafarianism!
It may not have been explicit, but it was definitely foreshadowed, giving hints and indications. The reason the Trinity is not clearly established in the Old Testament lies in the fact that Israel was surrounded by nations who were all polytheistic - they believed in many gods. It was important for Israel to realize that the God of the Bible is the only God who existed.
Hello! Thank you for participating in this debate. I was looking over some of your previous debates and noticed you have claimed to be a Christian. As a Christian myself, I just wanted to make sure you realized you were arguing against the Trinity in the Old Testament.
Since it is and it isn't, this is a good topic.