DEFINING TERMS & INTERPRETING RESOLUTION:
As my opponent has failed to define any terms, I will define all key terms from the resolution:
Furthermore, my opponent has failed to provide an interpretation of the resolution, I will therefore provide my own, along with observations of the resolution: "The most important idea which a standard for the good or bad character is derived which is not dependant on the mind for existence," Though my opponent doesn't clarify, we can presume that they are purposing a basis for objective morality. In other words, my opponent must demonstrate that A) the purposed basis is moral, and B) that morality is objective at all.
- In order to establish my BoP, I can either demonstrate morality not objective in general, or the specific basis argued here as not objective
- In order for my opponent to fulfill their BoP, they must do more than merely suppose a standard, they must demonstrate that the standard is objective
OPENING STATEMENT:
It is, perhaps, most comfortable for the average thinker that our moral laws be immutable. That whenever we say that something is bad, we mean it in every sense of the word. They are wrong, we are right. You'd find such thinking in a plethora of other ways of thinking, and I do not fault anyone for falling into this cognitive trap of comfort. As humans, we want to embrace what is comfortable because of our harsh world. However; it would be a fallacy to conclude that because something is comfortable or intuitive that is true. It would also be a fallacy to conclude that because it is intuitive or comfortable that is untrue.
There is key reasoning behind the subjectivity of Morality, the fact that you cannot derive a moral command from an objective statement. This is a fundamental part of moral and ethical considerations, without it, our modern understanding of ethics would not be what it is. I want to stress to the voters and my potential opponent (as he has of yet, not provided any arguments in favor of the resolution) that despite how intuitive it seems to connect objective fact and morals, they do not correlate, and connecting them inside of one syllogism is necessarily a non-sequitur.My opponent has inherently took hold of this burden the moment they claimed the standard to be objective.
CONTENTION I - HUME'S GUILLOTINE.
Philosopher David Hume is regarded as one of the most important writers and essayists in the history of moral philosophers, and his work which is most widely recognized is the aforementioned guillotine
[1]. The work this comes from is Hume's
Treatise of Human Nature [2] [3], what students might know as the "Is-ought dilemma". The dilemma goes as follows: There are two ways to categorize reality, describing and prescribing it, describing reality is to speak of the objective nature of the universe, for example; we live in a galaxy. To prescribe reality is to speak what you wish of reality, for example; You ought to live in the galaxy.
These two categories of reality are often mixed, and even used to support one another, that does not mean that these two are linked validly. A description of reality is referred to as an "if", and a prescription of reality is known as an "ought". The dilemma goes that you cannot derive an is from an ought, nor an ought from an is. I am claiming this to be true, and this, therefore, requires substantiation. Why can you not derive an is from ought or vice versa? For a simple reason, every moral description is saying that you ought to do or not to do something, because that thing is either morally valuable or morally harmful.
From that fact, we know that "things", "actions", or "behaviors" are closer or further from the ideal moral behavior. Deductively then, we know that every single "ought" is associated with an ideal behavior. The differences between moral oughts are which behavior or goal is prioritized, but these goals are then, by definition, subjective. They are what people prioritize over another. Therefore attempting to come to conclusion regarding how reality should be from what it is left out this essential component, there is no "ideal behavior", if you were to insert an ideal behavior or a goal, then you would get an ought from an is and ought.
Let's simplify this idea:
PREMISE I: Moral commands are only possible with a subjective "goal" or "ideal"
PREMISE II: Factual statements of the universe are not linked to these goals by themselves
CONCLUSIONS: Therefore you are unable to link an objective statement to a moral command
You can solve this problem by inserting an idea into the factual statement, let's look through an example to clarify what I mean:
EX:
PREMISE I: Driving is dangerous
CONCLUSION: Therefore you ought not to drive
The conclusion does not logically lead from the premise, it is a non-sequitur, this is the is-ought dilemma
EX 2:
PREMISE I: Driving is dangerous
PREMISE II: You ought to avoid danger
CONCLUSION: Therefore you ought not to drive
Notice that now the premise follows from the conclusion, IF driving is dangerous, and IF you ought to avoid danger, THEN you necessarily ought not to drive.
What I'm saying is that though, an IS-OUGHT premise conclusion is invalid, an IS-OUGHT-OUGHT premise conclusion is not. So I've substantiated my claim, but how does this tie into objective morality? A great question, with a very simple answer, any objective morality would mean that some ideals are objectively better than others; however, the reasoning for one ideal's objectivity is necessarily subjective in nature. Perhaps it is possible to outline objective moral ideals, but it would be impossible to link these without subjective nature, you have the same problem that you do while attempting to connect an is and ought.
Even if there is an "IS" an objective moral idea, every time you would claim that is is connected to a command is a subjective measure of what that objective ideal is. Is that ideal objectively good or bad? Is that ideal objectively authoritative or only true some of the time? There are so many subjective measures, that even if you find an objective ideal (which has not been demonstrated by Pro to exist), it would not point to the existence of objective morality. It is simply not the case that you can connect an objective description of reality to a prescription of reality.
CONCLUSIONS:
Given the fact that Pro has not given any argument regarding the objectivity of morality, he has practically conceded the first round, as he has yet to actually demonstrate that any moral basis can be objective, let alone his specific standard. Furthermore, I have only offered one argument, but it has syllogistic soundness backing it up, as well as a well-established principle in ethics. Voters must note that I have demonstrated that any moral basis is neccessarily subjective - this can essentially be taken as a kritique, as my opponent's resolution assumes there are objective basis's in morality to be had.
Over to Pro
SOURCES:
Sounds like an odd thing to complain about, as a majority of points in his favor is a majority of points in his favor. Anyways, done.
Removed by request:
Nevets
Added: 15 hours ago
Reason:
Argument - Pro opens by questioning the ambiguity of lying but does make a good argument strong argument that is easily comprehended. " Therefore, I would have to consider the exact situation. If I am lying to save an innocent man's life, and succeed, then no logical contradiction is formed, and lying becomes moral. However, if I lie to oppress someone and steal their fortunes, despite claiming to be good to them, this is a clear logical contradiction and lying is immoral in this situation. As you can see, Logicalism is much more clear than universalism.".. Con responds with some borderline criticisms regarding his opponents round 1, and offers an argument of his own which appears to translate to not everything is as black and white as Pro appears to be making it.. Pro comes back in round 2 and makes some very strong and convincing and easy to understand arguments and offers a critique regarding his opponents use of "ought". Con responds with some good examples of how not everything is black and white - "Premise 1: Humans need oxygen to live Premise 2: The earth is the only place where there is enough oxygen for humans to breathe, Conclusion: Humans have to live on the Earth to live"... At this point of the debate there is no winner or loser and it is a matter of opinion who one agrees with more. I may be inclined to buy Pros argument, but then what does he go and do? Forfeits. This means no argument of his own and no rebuttal of Cons argument.. Pro does not make amends either in the next round when he runs out of time. "Bleh ran out of time. Procrastination.".. The voting policy states that if a debater forfeits 40% of the debate then the argument can be handed to the opposition. Does that fact that Pro made it in time to write "Bleh ran out of time" enough to escape being viewed as a second forfeiture? Barely, but still offered absolutely nothing in terms of a rebuttal regards his opponents last argument, and Con is correct "My opponent has not rebuked my argument for two rounds consecutively, and my argument remains strong.", But as I actually thought that until Pro forfeited and succumbed to poor time keeping the argument was borderline and I may well have favoured Pro. Therefore I do not wish to punish the same crime of forfeiture and time keeping twice, and so will leave argument at a tie, as it is in fact a conduct violation and not an argument violation. - Tie
Sources - Pro only really ever took the time to produce one source. https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/abs/pii/014017509190016J) ... Whilst neither participant objected to each others use of sources, Con did use sources far more extensively, and no objections were raised. - Con
S & G - Neither stood out as making mass typos - Tie
Conduct - As I explained before, the forfeiture and bad time keeping is being punished by Conduct rather than argument loss. - Con
Hi, the weakeredge has made a complaint to me on another comment section regarding my failure to award him with the argument as well as sources and conduct. The easy solution to this is to simply remove my vote. Can this be done please?
Alright
Yee, and I was confusing it with the standard rhetoric of a syllogism
"A description of reality is referred to as an "if", and a prescription of reality is known as an "ought". "
Did you mean to say "is" instead of "if"
i think it suffers from the same thing all appeals to universalism do
what do you think? Is a watered down version of Universalism better? I tried poking at potential weaknesses, but couldn't find any obvious ones.