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@Greyparrot
He is European. They have a fascination with celebrities.
I'm fairly certain that most races around the world have fascination with celebrities.
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@ebuc
You have a dreadful habit of derailing a lot of conversations with ideologically possessed babbling about Trump and his followers.
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@RationalMadman
Some fathers are involved in toxic overbearing ways tbh, they try to ensure their children to best but drive them to the other end, especially in terms of motivation to do well.
I'm talking about what is statistically best for children, not individual cases or anecdotes. Yes, sometimes married, biological parents will not raise children well. Yes, sometimes biological, married fathers will be overbearing to a toxic degree. It's just more likely that married, biological parents will do the best.
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@zedvictor4
Nothing uglier than a women's arms legs and face covered in an inky mess.Some Tattooists may be very good. But the indelible scars are permanently bad.The odd small tattoo that can be easily covered is Ok I suppose..... But unnecessary.So what's the big deal with self-disfigurement?
There are two reasons people do this that I can think of:
(1) They're trying to buy an identity
(2) They're so self-hateful they try to keep people away from them with aposematic coloring
(1) A plague that has engulfed out modern era is rampant, unrestrained capitalism. Capitalism certainly has its place in a functional society, but when increasing the bottom line comes at the expense of identity (culture, racial heritage etc.), then it has outstayed its welcome. There are things more important in life than squeezing more money out of people. People intuitively understand this, hence why they attempt to find identity. However, since this unrestrained capitalism has left many homelands nihilistic, multicultural wastelands absent of any identity, people are desperate enough to think they can purchase an identity. So, they attempt to. They cover themselves in ink in an attempt to find meaning, but they only mask an empty shell devoid of meaning.
(2) Some people are unfortunate enough to suffer sexual abuse in their childhood/teenage years. Subconsciously, their mind tries to protect them from another terrifying experience by encouraging self-disfigurement. Sometimes, this self-disfigurement takes the form of hideous or frightening tattoos that the person feels will help keep them safe from future sexual abuse. A society interested in actually helping these people would encourage them to deal with this real trauma through introspection or a psychiatrist. A mentally unsound society encourages this trauma to manifest in self-disfigurement, mistaking it for 'expressing themselves' when in reality it merely expresses a mind broken by trauma.
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Assuming the premise that people should have children (a debatable topic), research shows that children born into wedlock with their biological, adult parents have the best chance to live what most people consider a good life.
Children born out of wedlock are more likely to have teen parents
Not all teenage parents are bad, but on average, they will be worse than adult parents.
Giving birth to children as a teen is a significant contributor to dropping out in high school: "Only about 50% of teen mother receive a high school diploma by 22 years of age, whereas approximately 90% of women who do not give birth during adolescence graduate from high school" About Teen Pregnancy | CDC . By the age 30, these mothers have only a 1.5 chance of earning a college degree Teen Pregnancy Statistics - Teen Help . From this, children are going to be worse off because their mothers are more likely to be less educated, thus having increased difficulty in understanding adult documents and finding a well-paying job. This undereducation is also likely to extend to the child, wherein "the children of teenage mothers are more likely to have lower school achievement and to drop out of high school".
Health problems can extend from a number of reasons, ranging from an inability to eat well due to poverty, to receiving poor health advice from relatively uneducated parents. Moreover, "the children of teenage mothers are more likely to have more health problems" About Teen Pregnancy | CDC .
Economically, due to welfare and support systems, 80% of unmarried teen mothers are on welfare Teen Pregnancy Statistics - Teen Help . We can see the very costly effect of this teenage welfare usage: "between 1991 and 2015, the teen birth rate dropped 64%, which results in $4.4 billion in public savings in 2015 alone" About Teen Pregnancy | CDC . In 2010 specifically, $9.4 billion tax dollars (federal budget) were spent on teen pregnancy and childbirth Teen Pregnancy Statistics - Teen Help . Teens not having children helps save the economy money.
Children from teenage parents are also more likely to spend time in jail Teen Pregnancy Statistics - Teen Help .
In promoting children to be born into wedlock, we are inadvertently lowering the chance of the parents being teenaged and all the negative outcomes associated with that.
Children born out of wedlock are less likely to live with both biological parents growing up
Absence of a father in a child's life leads to a miserable host of negative outcomes. Inversely, the presence of a biological father prevents these negative outcomes Statistics | The Fatherless Generation (wordpress.com) :
- 63% of youth suicides are from fatherless homes – 5 times the average
- 90% of all homeless and runaway children are from fatherless homes – 32 times the average
- 80% of rapists with anger problems come from fatherless homes –14 times the average
- 71% of all high school dropouts come from fatherless homes – 9 times the average
- Children with fathers who are involved are 40% less likely to repeat a grade in school
- Children with fathers who are involved are 70% less likely to drop out of school
- Children with fathers who are involved are more likely to get A’s in school and enjoy school by engaging in extracurricular activities
- 75% of all adolescent patients in chemical abuse centers come from fatherless homes – 10 times the average
- Children living in two-parent household with a poor relationship with their father are 68% more likely to smoke, drink, or use drugs compared to all teens in two-parent households
- Teens in single mother households are at a 30% higher risk than those in two-parent households
- 70% of youths in state-operated institutions come from fatherless homes – 9 times the average
- 85% of all youths in prison come from fatherless homes – 20 times the average
The list goes on. Check the source if you're interested. It's super clear that having a biological father in a child's life is a positive thing.
On another note, the Cinderella Effect is a phenomenon wherein non-biological parents are far more likely to treat non-biological children poorly. Studies have repeatedly shown that non-biological children are at 100-300 times the risk of being beaten to death by their non-biological parents (particularly the father). You can add to this the elevated rates which in stepfathers don't play with their stepchildren, contribute to accidental injury of their stepchildren and less investment in stepchild's education cinderella effect facts.doc (ucsb.edu) .
There's no doubt that being raised with both biological parents is preferable for a child.
Unmarried parents are more likely to: be poor, suffer from depression, report substance abuse and spend time in jail
I'm not sure how anyone would argue against factors being good Non-marital childbearing has increased dramatically since the 1970s (princeton.edu) . Nonetheless, I will make some short arguments.
Being poor, parent or child, means that on average you (compared to non-poor people): had two fewer years of schooling, had incomes less than half, received $826 more annually in food stamps, almost 3 times likely to report poor health and twice as likely to be arrested (if male) 2.4 The Consequences of Poverty – Social Problems (umn.edu) .
Depression not only feels draining to be under, but also "raises levels of the stress hormone cortisol and can significantly weaken the immune system" Coping With Depression: A Guide to Good Treatment | Everyday Health .
Drug abuse routinely leads to problems with memory attention and decision-making. It also increases your body temperature, which can lead to problems with sleeping and other health complications The Physical & Mental Effects of Drug Abuse | Gateway Foundation .
Spending time in jail is extremely self-evident as being bad.
Closing thoughts
It's time society stops seeing alternative parenting set-ups, such as non-married parents, single mothers, double mothers/fathers, step-dads and teen parents, as credible alternatives to the traditional set-up. Instead, we should view them as objectively inferior.
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@oromagi
I understand the distinction you are making.
- So when Ronald Greene was beat to death by six Louisiana State troopers on May 10, 2019 that was not SYSTEMIC RACISM because no law allowed those troopers to beat an unarmed man to death as punishment for resisting arrest.
- And when those troopers lied on their arrest reports and lied to Greene's widow saying that Greene had died in an auto accident, that was not SYSTEMIC RACISM because no law allowed those troopers to lie and cover up their murder of Greene.
- And when those troopers turned off their body cameras or else lied about having any body camera footage of the murder that was not SYSTEMIC RACISM because the law clearly states that those troopers must have their body cameras running at all times.
- And when the County Coroner falsely attributed Greene's death to car accident and made no report of the many deep lacerations and bruises and taser prongs stuck in Greene's body, that was not SYSTEMIC RACISM because the law clearly requires the County Coroner to make accurate statements during an autopsy.
- And when Troop F commanders threatened internal investigators who wanted to charge the troopers that was not SYSTEMIC RACISM because by law police commanders are supposed to charge known murderers and not cover up when the murders are committed by co-workers.
- And when the Louisiana State Patrol refused to release any body camera footage or discuss Greene's death for two years that was not SYSTEMIC RACISM because state officials are not allowed by law to knowingly cover up internal investigations or conceal evidence in a murder.
- And when the Governor of Louisiana backed the LSP's refusal to release body camera footage or discuss Greene's death because investigation were still active two years out that was not SYSTEM RACISM because Governor's are not permitted by law to knowingly conceal evidence of a murder.
- And when the LSP decided to scapegoat one officer and that officer then died in a car accident a few hours later that was not SYSTEMIC RACISM because state officials are not allowed by law to scapegoat one man for a murder done by six men.
- And when the LSP slapped a different officer on the wrist and refused to charge the rest of the murderers with anything, in spite of the recommendations of internal investigators and in spite of the active cover up, that was not SYSTEMIC RACISM because police officers are required by law to charge people with murder when detectives have determined that a murder has been committed.
- And when evidence emerges that Troop F has a long history of accusations of racially motivated violence against black motorists around Monroe, LA and a long history of cover-ups and most of Troop F command resigns to avoid any backlash, that is not SYSTEMIC RACISM because the law does not allow for racially motivated violence against motorists and the law requires the State to prosecute those officials who cover up such incidents.
So, while any reasonable person might conclude that Troop F, the Louisiana State Patrol and the highest-ranking state officials all worked together as an institution to promote racist violence, created a system that covered-up racist violence and therefore forgave if not actively encouraged racist violence no person might reasonably call that system of racist violence SYSTEMIC RACISM so long as the definition of SYSTEMIC RACISM only accounts for the TEXT of current statutes and procedural policies and never accounts for the conduct of racist institutions and systems which may only be properly seen as large interdependent hierarchies of officially appointed individuals, independently breaking the law en masse and never as part of any inherently racist system.I understand the distinction you are making.
These anecdotes are potentially explainable by the police not wanting to be caught for abusing their power. Just because there was (I assume) white on black violence, that does not mean:
(1) That there was racial animosity
(2) That there is "systemic racism"
It's absolutely possible that these police officers beat this black man to death because they harbored racial animosity. However, this hasn't been proven by what you've provided, and is quite frankly a dreadful way to form an argument.
The overwhelming majority of people don't announce the reasons for the their actions, especially if they're based upon racial animosity. For example, someone bumping into someone else in a store isn't going to announce, "I'm going to bump into you because you're black". So what then happens if that people are left to make an inference as to what has happened based on their feelings (a very error-prone process), rather than *knowing* the intent of the person.
The validity of this inferencing this way was tested in the 1980 paper 'Perceptions of the impact of negatively valued characteristics on social interaction' (PDF) Perceptions of the impact of negatively valued characteristics on social interaction (researchgate.net) . People in this experiment were told that they were going to have a fake scar drawn onto their face (through make-up artistry), or that they were going to have a different medical sheet (that said they had epilepsy) that a medical person would see, and then they were going to interact with the medical person. The participants in the experiment claimed that the medical person was condescending, discriminatory, didn't like them etc. The catch was that no scar had been put on their face, and no medical sheet had been altered at all -- the people's perception of their false reality warped how they viewed the interactions.
Similarly, black people have been repeatedly told by the media and educational institutions that there is "systemic racism," lingering feelings of racial oppression, White people are super "racist" against them etc. (the analogy: been told that they have a scar on their race, been told their medical records are altered). Thus, black people begin to view their interactions through this perceived reality **without** establishing it's right in the first place (the analogy: seeing that they have a scar, seeing that their medical records have been altered).
This is why we don't infer intent from anecdotes: it's notoriously unreliable.
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@oromagi
You're asking me to take for granted that all these hundreds of different kinds of intelligence tests all reflect your definition of general intelligence sufficiently to eliminate any opportunity for bias. I don't make that assumption.
If they're testing for I.Q, they'll correlate with it to some degree. If there's "bias", it will reflect in the correlation with I.Q. You're moving the goalposts when asking for 'how much do the tests correlate with themselves' -- we don't need to know to agree with what I'm arguing.
Socioeconomic status is the is often measured as a combination of education, income and occupation. I'd always expect to see a strong correlation between any status and the qualities that define status. For example, people with the status dead correlate strongly with lack of movement as an attribute.
You originally claimed "socioeconomic status" is far more correlated with income than claimed here (here being Kirkegaard's study). If you think this, then you need to demonstrate it, rather than merely stating "I'd always expect to see a strong correlation between any status and the qualities that define status." Otherwise, you're just guessing against research.
So it takes time to accumulate subjective and objective data points in order to more accurately assess intelligence. IQ gives us some valid metric of what you call general intelligence, but just like superficial personal assessments, not necessarily what we call intelligence generally.
Yes, that's why this superficial assessment has weaker correlations with I.Q. than an I.Q. test. General intelligence is a far more robust, replicable definition than what people colloquially think of as 'intelligence'.
If you don't think so, show me the research where it's concluded otherwise.
Yes, I'm afraid it does. The people are not going to change their shared understanding of the word INTELLIGENCE. The fact that Intelligence quotients only quantify a subset of those elements we understand as INTELLIGENCE means that the inaccurate usage is Psychometry's to correct. 'g' quotient or "cognitive integration test" would be a lot less misleading and probably eliminate most objections to IQ test altogether.
I hear people colloquially call fast runners geniuses. I hear people who can bowl a cricket ball that spins a lot geniuses. Should we test for intelligence based on how fast you can run? Should we test for intelligence based on how much you spin a cricket ball? People's colloquial understanding of intelligence is good but isn't perfect, and the concept of general intelligence is superior. That's why we shouldn't use 'intelligence' instead of 'general intelligence' when the latter is available.
I assume (admittedly without looking into it much) that the Pygmys' avg 55 IQ score as well Sub-Saharan Africa's avg 71 are similar artifacts of poor controls for learned knowledge and don't quantify actual cognitive integration particularly well.
Okay, 'cultural bias' is an acceptable objection to make. If you can show these papers don't control for cultural bias, I'm all ears.
Secondly, I.Q. tests by function do assess the genetic component of I.Q. That might not be the primary interest or even an interest of administering the test,So you concede my point . Most people just want a number that let's them say they are smarter than others and aren't building a case that some groups of people are naturally smarter than others.
This wasn't my point at all, but maybe what I wrote was too vague.
My point is that a test (of any kind) could test for the genetic component of I.Q. without knowing it.
For example, if you tested people to see what art they could make with a pack of straws, art that represents the spiritual woes of the modern era, that indirectly tests for genetic I.Q.
Thirdly, I actually pretty much agree with your quoted estimations of I.Q. heritability.I do think our differences are more a question of the degree and extent to which this data is reliable than any question of validity.
Yeah we agree that environment and genetics affect I.Q.
It's a matter of agreeing on definitions and weights.
Fine but then that reveals your bias, right? Many intelligent people place no value on institutionalized labor, money, or institutionalized education. I think that's why Pygmys score so low, not because they lack integrated cognition.[...]But obviously, humans were INTELLIGENT long before they were civilized. This demonstrates more of your bias. Are you really measuring 'intelligence' or controlling for 'civilized?'[...]I've already argued this. I suspect that the biases you've already admitted- civilization, money, jobs, education, etc. clearly distort any evaluation of a nomadic people who value none of those things. I've only studied Mbuti and San peoples briefly in anthropology but sufficiently to say with confidence that these people are INTELLIGENT by any ordinary understanding of that word and the scores reflect the failures of psychometry to match up IQ with actual INTELLIGENCE.
'Civilized' doesn't need to be controlled for because it's inherently desirable. All people don't want to die of heatstroke in a desert, hypothermia from sleeping in the rain, starving, dehydration etc. Having civilizations helps people stay away from undesirable outcomes, and thus is more desirable than alternatives. Civilization is objectively preferable.
Obviously, Aboriginal Australians are INTELLIGENT. That is why we should change the name of the IQ test to the integrated cognition test because INTELLIGENCE means a whole lot more than just integrated cognition and if you go around saying that Aboriginal Australians are not intelligent you are picking an unnecessary fight because Psychometry is stubbornly using the word INTELLIGENCE to mean integrated cognition. This is a good illustration of my contention.
The way I used intelligent in this instance was in the sense that Australian Aboriginals are less intelligent than other human races. Clearly, yes, they are "intelligent" to some extent.
We can't measure for "integrated cognition" directly because science isn't able to directly find all the intelligence genes yet. Instead, the next best thing is an I.Q. test that acts as a proxy for "integrated cognition". No one of merit is saying that I.Q. is perfectly accurate in measuring "integrated cognition", but it's extremely accurate and the best tool we currently have.
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@oromagi
WIKI: Valid ad hominem arguments occur in informal logic, where the person making the argument relies on arguments from authority such as testimony, expertise, or on a selective presentation of information supporting the position they are advocating. In this case, counter-arguments may be made that the target is dishonest, lacks the claimed expertise, or has a conflict of interest....What people? Eugenicists? Is it an ad hom to call a Eugenicist a Eugenicist? Are you denying that taking money from parties with a political interest in a particular outcome exposes the data to skepticism when that particular outcome is published? If a study stating that smoking is good for you comes out and I complain that the study was sponsored by RJ Reynolds, is that mere insult or is that a legitimate cause for skepticism?
I can't entirely blame you for using this faulty definition (as you've applied it correctly), but it is faulty nonetheless. Once again, Wikipedia has failed to provide a cogent definition. I'll explain why:
It's true that if someone has a conflict of interest, they're more likely to be bias towards things they wouldn't be biased towards. If you had stated that because these researchers received money from people who have a political agenda, and you proved that they did have a political agenda (yet to be done imo), then I could agree that they're more likely to be biased.
However, this is not the same as being logically fallacious, as is the function implied in an 'Ad Hominem' claim. By using Wikipedia's definition, you're essentially arguing that because their conflict of interest *might* have caused the research to be biased, it *has* to be biased. This leap in logic is why Wikipedia's interpretation of logic is wrong.
Moreover, if the bias were to effect the results of the study, that should be evident in the results, and that's where your criticisms should be directed. In other words, the validity of the study exists *independent* of the author's character. More likely to be biased =/= biased.
Therefore, it is logically fallacious to attack the character of the people making the arguments, rather than the arguments.
Out of labor for 1 month is one bad life out indicator. The original data is so old-fashioned that they only counted men, expecting women to drop out of the labor force regular for birthing and raising children. I'd argue that if our priorities were straight, all parents would drop of the labor force for at least month as part of bonding with infants and other childcare responsibilities.Had an illegitimate child: is another bad life indicator. I understand why white supremacists are very interested in controlling breeding for the purpose of enforcing racial purity but 40% of all US mothers now have children deemed "illegitimate" by the old-fashioned standards of the early '80's. Are we really still calling this a bad outcome. Naturally, this bad outcome is only counting women as responsible for children born out wedlock. Fathering illegitimate children is not considered a similarly negative outcome, apparently. [...] Again, better than 40% of US women are having babies without a marriage license these days. Are you really lumping all those women into a bad life outcome.Lives in poverty: There's the classic indicator of classist bias, measuring positive life outcomes according to money made. Many people choose low-paying jobs out of a sense of civic duty- teachers, nurses, military, clergy, social workers, etc or because their priorities supersede financial considerations- artists, athletes, farmers, etc. Many highly intelligent people choose poverty, experience contentment, yet end up the bad outcomes list.
At the time (and even today), these were the values that were related to success. Hence, it is valid to see who best met the valid metrics at the time.
Being out of labor for 1 month, when you have a single-income household (i.e. male breadwinner), is alarming. I can agree that preferably, men would get to spend more time with their children, but if you were to stop working as a man back in those times, your household would likely have no income (women were way less likely to work). Hence, this should be regarded as a metric of success at the time. I agree with you that this should not be considered a metric of success today, because most households require two incomes. Nonetheless, this metric was valid and functioned as a measure of success.
I haven't argued "racial purity" nor am I a "white supremacist" at all. This is purely slanderous. Anyway, to your actual point, children born out of wedlock have (on average) worse life outcomes (more likely to: have teen parents, have non-biological parents (and suffer from the Cinderella Effect: Cinderella effect - Wikipedia ), to live in poverty, to suffer from depression, report substance abuse, require welfare and spend time in jail) Non-marital childbearing has increased dramatically since the 1970s (princeton.edu), especially if they end up with a single mother (same effects are worsened) Single Mother Statistics (UPDATED 2021) (singlemotherguide.com) . And yes, women should be blamed more because they have access to a wider, more effective variety of contraception: "The invention of the birth control pill was a significant milestone in the women’s rights movement. Since then, other long-acting, reversible contraceptives (LARCs) have been developed for women, and women now have a total of 11 methods to choose from, including barrier methods, hormonal methods, and LARCs. In contrast, men only have 2 options—male condom and vasectomy—and neither are hormonal methods or LARCs" (source is a bit old but we still don't have a male pill: Contraceptive Justice: Why We Need a Male Pill | Journal of Ethics | American Medical Association (ama-assn.org) ).
You're conflating "low-income" with poverty because these jobs are not poverty-stricken: "teachers, nurses, military, clergy, social worker". I can understand your argument to some extent if you'd argued "low-income" is in rare cases desirable (some of the jobs you listed are low-income in various parts of the world), but poverty is absolutely not desirable. Do you realize you're conflating the to terms, and that you would legitimately argue that people should be indifferent (or even want to live) poverty-stricken lives?
[Intelligence doesn't account for factors like empathy, humor, creativity, musical aptitude etc.]
I've summarized a lot of what you said into this one sentence, because a lot of what you said is a variation of saying this. If I've missed anything important, please let me know.
I'll summarize how I've responded to this point on multiple occasions, because I think I've already addressed it half-a-dozen times, and it seems that your new responses aren't changing:
(1) I.Q. DOES measure for the intelligent components of these factors. Any intelligence associated with these traits is shown in an I.Q. test
(2) These factors you've listed aren't ENTIRELY measuring intelligence (due to some parts potentially being learned *before* an I.Q. test). That's why they shouldn't be tested for directly as a proxy for general intelligence (I.Q.)
(3) When I agree that the environment affects I.Q, I mean that your diet can affect how well your brain functions. This is different from learning something prior to an I.Q. test. Again, it makes no sense to test African tribes for I.Q. if the whole test is in English and they don't know it (I.Q. is obfuscated by knowledge). However, the environment (diet, disease etc.) WILL affect their I.Q. -- that's how the environment plays a role
[Schmidt and Hunter point] Yes, "mental ability" seems to claim a much wider range than "general intelligence"
How so?
Valid but not "best." You claimed Huffcutt & Arthur supported "best predictor" but Huffcutt & Arthur said that Hunter (1980) badly underestimated the value of the job interview as the predictor of job performance and that when the job interview was highly structured surpassed IQ as a predictor.
Yes, a "highly structured" interview did perform better than I.Q, according to Huffcutt & Arthur -- we agree on this.
You seem to be assuming that Huffcutt's "ability composite "represents IQ but I don't see where Huffcutt made that connection.
I can't find where they define it directly (been awhile since I used this source and control+f doesn't work), but "ability" clearly means something along the lines of innate talent that is not learned. "Composite" kinda makes it 'combined innate talent', which feels similar to general intelligence. I don't know what it could mean if it's not general intelligence.
When I find some spare time, I'll read the whole thing again and tell you what exactly they define it as.
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@Conway
In 1950, the youngest people to be born into slavery and performing some sort of labor around the time of emancipation would have been in their 90's. Martin Luther King Jr. was only 21, and he did not graduate from Boston University until around 1955.What do you consider noteworthy about him not 'owning' slaves?
It's a total non-sequitur that has no bearing on the accusations I've levelled. Martin's fraudness has been determined by factors (plagiarism and un-Christian behavior) that don't hinge on whether he owned slaves or not. I wouldn't pay it much attention.
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@3RU7AL
this is really begging the question of WHY you would bother to mention this "information".it seems obvious that your only possible motive would be to pre-emptively DISCREDIT any FUTURE arguments (specifically from the person in question).any comment on the SPEAKER and not specifically on their WORDS is an AD HOMINEM ATTACK.
There is no question begging because the "why" is not an assumed premise residing in my conclusion.
The insults were derived deductively, therefore it cannot be a case of Ad Hominem. Moreover, I didn't argue that *because* he has sub-zero I.Q, his argument is wrong. I argued that his argument is wrong *independent* of his mental bankruptcy.
So no, not "any comment on the speaker" is classified as Ad Hominem. Ad Hominem only occurs when you attack the speaker *in place* of the speaker's argument.
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@MarkWebberFan
I was waiting to see if you'd reply once you read the study you mentioned at the bottom of your reply, so that I could bundle this response together. You might be busy with life or not intending to respond to it, so I'll just respond to what you've already written because it's worth responding to.
Is this measured or spontaneous?For example, if I'm learning piano for the first time, I would classify my first training as measured. Me learning the music keys would be excruciatingly painful as a first-time music learner. I think measured activities require a lot of work. That's different from a spontaneous act of drinking and getting drunk on a random night.So, is the general coming together as a result of similarity spontaneous or measured?
It seems that more important issues (such as religion, politics etc.) have greater impact in determining whether people like each other, so I'd lean towards the measured interactions having more weight (less likely to espouse deeper beliefs in conversations with banter and light-heartedness). Although, alcohol will have an effect on this (people more likely to say what they think), but not all spontaneous interactions have alcohol.
What? I think that sounds more of a genetic than behavior kind of thing. Not to interject a stereotype but women gossip about things and men talk about sex. But I'm not talking about actions borne from laziness or "spur of the moment". I'm talking about things that require plenty of thought. A coptic christian choosing to love a baathist muslim would definitely require more work than a typical high school romance or whatever.
I'd argue that this kind of "measured" love doesn't exist, that "love" is poorly defined lust with many rationalizations bundled in. You don't really get to "choose" (in a thoughtful sense) to love someone because that drive is largely physical sexual appeal, particularly in the facial area. That's probably why a Coptic Christian and Baathist Muslim would come together: they find each other quite physically hot, not because they intellectually stimulate each other after 3 hours of discussing quantum mechanics.
Forethought of generalized rules without exceptions can never be made into actual laws of nature. My opinion.
The studies all prove various levels of correlation, so they implicitly admit there are exceptions. It would be nigh impossible, barring a super small sample size or a lots of time, to account for every exception. It's probably just better to call it a trend of nature, anyway.
Well, your best guess? Or do exceptions mean nothing to you?
Exceptions mean something but I'm more interested in what large correlations or consistencies we can find. I guess people's mood can affect this. I guess the type of interactions (spontaneous) can affect this. The time they talk will affect it. Hard to list everything.
I think thats a spurious correlation. Granted, there's an argument that arab nationalists draw a lot from islam in their hatred of western values. I think they consider nationalism as interchangeable with islam. So, If I'm an arab, the best argument in favor of this is that over time, i develop some form of genetic disposition that allows me to associate Islam and nationalism. That disposition then becomes hereditary, but is still probably open to manipulation. Well, okay not sure what to make of that other than to say that I have very little faith in spurious correlations. I'll check your source when I get home.
If you have enough data points, I don't think it remains spurious because you've inductively shown consistency on many occasions.
The source makes the argument better than I do.
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@3RU7AL
Why ?Why do you think this is "important" ?If you're not proposing any particular policy, why should anyone care ?
Don't you care about the truth?
Also, it would help avoid creating policy based on falsehoods.
AD HOMINEM ATTACK
Lol so this isn't Ad Hom because I didn't claim that because he's that stupid, his post is wrong. I claimed that because his post was so wrong (we're talking denial of things right in front of him), he's stupid. It's astounding how stupid he has been, actually. I'm almost certain he's not trolling. It deserves an award.
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Um... if you are doing a science experiment, the source is literally the graphs
The graphs are the data presentation -- they are not the source themselves.
The "source" refers to where the information comes from.
Either you're doubling down on being caught for not knowing what a source is, or you don't know what a source is.
this isn't a science experiment - or something that can be repeatedly reproduced to expose fraud, this is a paper marking several claims regarding a source who is INSANELY biased, and has obvious motivation for lying... so yes, we need a source.
Again, you haven't proven that Pappas is "INSANELY biased". Like your claims of propaganda, you've asserted this without evidence. It's strange that you think I haven't provided a source, yet you've already concluded that the source is "INSANELY biased" -- that's a contradiction on your end.
Um... yes I did? I literally followed up the thing with two sources getting into how your source was insanely biased and was propagandized? Do you need the sources again?...Just in case, here's a third source since you don't seem to get the history here:https://millercenter.org/the-presidency/educational-resources/age-of-eisenhower/mcarthyism-red-scare...Um.. actually it is sufficient, because I don't care if you agree or not, I know that i have the evidence to support my claims....It is Mccarthism, and if you disagree, then check the sources
So this is what I'm talking about when I say you don't link your sources to your arguments. Dumping sources, claiming that they say 'x' without showing that, isn't a valid form of argumentation. You need to connect your sources to your arguments and demonstrate that what your sources say is what you're arguing. If you can't connect your arguments to sources, then they remain bare assertions.
Also, for the third time, it is impossible for the FBI documents to be propaganda when they were not released in 1968. How would the American public be exposed to this "propaganda" if they never saw it? Why would the FBI make "propaganda" but not release it?
What? No, this is logical critique of a source - which is just a way to look and dismantle sources, like presenting a logical fallacy - THAT'S something you don't source. And... I explained it? It was written during a time of the red scare, and presented actual sources reporting how insanely biased the FBI was against King. Like... literally, two posts ago, do you actually check the links that people give you? Cuz' if you actually want "proof" then check it.
Whilst I can agree that people are more likely to lie about others they don't like, you didn't demonstrate how likely. Again, there's nothing backing your claim other than 'The FBI hated him'.
When you say that you "explained" it, what actually happened is that you barely asserted it, dumped sources that may prove what you say, and expected me to assemble your argument for you so that I can negate it. It's *your* job to make your argument. The burden of proof is on you to connect your arguments to your sources. So when you're ready to that, go ahead.
Also... again... what??? Yes I said "I don't take it seriously" I literally just reiterated what I meant! They mean the exact same thing, I don't take the source seriously, i.e, I trust it less.
You trusted it less because you saw some words you don't like. It makes no sense to claim that Martin was less likely to be an adulterer because the FBI used mean words in their documents of him. That is absolutely a non-sequitur.
Just because America wants it doesn't mean it's a good thing.
Please, explain to me why Communism is a good idea, especially for 1960s America.
you are talking about lenisim, which isn't the same thing as communism, if you're going to criticize something, then make sure you aren't criticizing an offshoot.
You're going have to do a bit better to convince everyone that 1960s Russia wasn't Communist.
Even if you did, Americans of the 1960s believed Russia was Communist, so my point still stands.
No, because the "source" is not primary, it is not backed by any other sources, it has no data or offcial record to back it up. You see, with scientific data, there are things called "photos" and "graphs" which give credence to it, this is not a "looking at a duck", this is a "looking at a paper, claiming a duck did X, whenever the writer of the paper had ample reason to lie about what Duck did, and then expecting me to believe said paper uncritically."
Ah, so you finally admit that I have sourced my claim, your issue with it now is that it's not a "primary" source. Since you love me pointing out your logical fallacies so much, this is what we call moving the goalposts.
Also, you seem very confused with the book's claims and the FBI's claims. The author of the book isn't the FBI, therefore you claiming they share the same bias is based on this false conflation.
Anyway, the book is behind a paywall and I don't feel like shelling out 245 dollars to provide a primary source Martin Luther King Jr Plagiarism Story: Pappas: 9780961936457: Amazon.com: Books . Since you won't accept the Amren article which directly quotes the book and summarizes its arguments (hence, the duck analogy), here is a university plagiarism website that makes some of the claims Pappas' book does: Checking for plagiarism shows Martin Luther King plagiarized (unicheck.com) . Here is another plagiarism checker website that echoes some of the claims in Pappas' book: The Most Controversial Plagiarism Issues of All Time | Plagerism Checker .
Also... the bible supports orgies, the bible supports mistresses, and the bible supports drunkness. Oh, did you not know?
More bare assertions. Fortunately for these, I can show you're dead wrong:
Galatians 5:21: "and envy; drunkenness, orgies, and the like. I warn you, as I did before, that those who live like this will not inherit the kingdom of God." (NIV)
One of the Ten Commandments: "You shall not commit adultery" -- what do you think having multiple "mistresses" means?
And you also completely ignored my argument, the bible is also against eating pork dude, you're not being consistent with the bible, cuz' you can't.
You're not even right about this:
"In the Old Testament God gave dietary laws to Israel. Remember He didn’t give them to everybody He only gave them to the Israelites."
Actually, I did have sources, three, you didn't read them. Tu quo que doesn't actually address criticism
I copy-pasted a bunch of what you said and jammed it together, just to see what response I got. It's funny how you didn't realize this. What was that about being "stupid" again?
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@Theweakeredge
As I said, he had no sources, claiming that he "sourced himself" isn't a good way to give the paper any credence.
When you conduct a science experiment, why do you need a source for that?
If I were to test different objects on how they heat in the sun, why do I need a source for that?
Similarly, when Theodore tests to see how much of Martin's work was plagiarized, do you see why he doesn't need a source for that? He's the one conducting the science experiment lol.
And yes, the book itself is propaganda.
Once again, you've barely asserted this without any proof or argumentation -- you haven't learned your lesson.
Furthermore, this document wasn't released until decades later. How can this be propaganda if it wasn't released to the public at the time?
Furthermore, I'm saying it is LIKELY the FBI lied given: their is no actual evidence that the claims were true, and they had an extremely high motive to lie, therefore it is likely to be a lie.
And how did you deduce this likelihood of lying, other than a blind guess? Looks like you're the one without sources now.
Also, what determines they had an "extremely high motive to lie?"
Again, I was using that to settle the credence of the paper, the writer was obviously discriminatory in nature, no?
No. Prove it.
Further-furthermore, to say it is a "non-sequiter" is actually a fallacy-fallacy. I was not connecting logic specifically, merely saying that the word-usage made me trust the claims less, since it increases the motive to lie, we've been over this.
Incorrect.
You said that: "I don't take it seriously", and your reasoning was because of the words. You can't lie about what you said when it's there for us to see. Therefore, my ascribing of your argument as a non-sequitur stands.
Furthermore.... even if it true that he "associated with communists", so what? You do know that there were communists patriotic to America right? there is literally nothing wrong with that, you see, you buy into the red scare as much as the guys writing this... but ya know, considering this was a Mccarthinson era report, with no actual evidence, and a counter report (which you failed to read), which detailed it as exaggerative.
America's national interests at the time were in fighting Communism, specifically Russian Communism. Undermining that fight, as Martin did, was against America's national interest.
Also, Communism is such a dreadful ideology that anyone doing anything in favor of it is doing something wrong lol.
Since you've thoroughly read your sources and haven't copy-pasted it once you saw the heading in order to look smart, you need to show us where you source says what you are arguing. Dumping it at the bottom and not linking it to your argument is insufficient.
While it is "technically" correct, that is true, whenever making a claim that is contested it is the burden of the maker of the claim to provide adequate evidence of said claim. If 2 + 2 = 4 was in contention, the maker of the claim would have an intellectual burden to prove said claim. However, that does not apply here, as math itself is an axiom due to it's self-fulffilling nature, so this is a false-equivelency, as these claims are specific and falsifiable, you must provide evidence of their credence.
Theweakeredge: *looks at a duck*
Theweakeredge: "Where is the source that proves I'm looking at a duck?"
Duck: *quack*
Theweakeredge: "Where is the source to prove that you quacked?"
Or... if you're saying that it doesn't matter if we have sources for our claims
You're asking for a source of a source.
This is comedy.
Nope, I didn't, I merely said that claiming anyone isn't a christian because of actions they took is stupid, because doing that you could claim ALL christians aren't christians...according to the bible, actually. Since by your logic, if someone does someone "unchristian" than they aren't christian, and the bible says all men fall short of the glory of god, so... yeah, no.
I don't know.
If I intentionally have dozens of drunken orgies, despite the Bible explicitly saying not to do that...
If I intentionally have 4 mistresses, despite it being one of the Ten Commandments not to do that...
If I intentionally have a child out of wedlock, despite the Bible saying not to do that...
If I intentionally steal other people's work, lie about doing it, and even try to copyright the work I stole, despite it being against TWO of the Ten Commandments: stealing and lying...
It would seem like I don't have much interest in being a Christian.
It would seem like I'm a fraud.
You see, you aren't actually critically thinking through this stuff. You just throw out fallacies you think apply when you have no idea what you're actually addressing. This is why skilled interloquitors don't do this "quote" and respond stuff like this. It often leads one to conclude that you aren't considering the entire thing in context.
I have little time to answer, interloquitor.
There is no credence to what you said here because it has exactly ZERO sources. Fairly simple logic. You have an extremely high motive to lie. Fairly simple logic. Furthermore, exactly ZERO sources. Fairly simple logic. If you think that's a fallacy, there's an extremely high motive that that's a fallacy-fallacy with exactly ZERO sources. Even if it wasn't ... so what? Fairly simple logic.
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@Reece101
No you haven't.
So, despite me creating the OP for "racism is a nonsense, malicious term" Racism is a nonsense, malicious term (debateart.com), despite me arguing all throughout this thread that racism is a nonsense term Racism is a nonsense, malicious term (debateart.com) Racism is a nonsense, malicious term (debateart.com) Racism is a nonsense, malicious term (debateart.com) (etc.), despite me arguing on other threads that racism is a nonsense term controversial view: there's widespread discrimination but not widespread racism (debateart.com) , you have managed to conclude that no, I have not argued that racism is a nonsense term.
I think you've made the single worst comment I've ever seen on a debate website. It's spectacular that you've found a way to be this stupid. You may be the first person in the history of humanity to have negative I.Q.
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@Reece101
Well by Mesmer’s standards he is a racist.
Incorrect.
I have repeatedly argued, including in the OP of this thread, that the term "racist" is nonsense.
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@n8nrgmi
i think white people are open minded towards black people. it's just that there's a lotta baggage with black culture. so, they whites might be less likely to hire blacks or place them in housing, or whatever. i would call that discrimination. not racism. it's discrimination because the factor that is being used to make a decision is skin color, not the content of the person's character. but i dont think it's prejudicial in an unreasonable way. white people are only human and often fear blacks, and it's understandable that whites dont want to associate with much of black culture given there's so much toxicity included often times.i think it's reasonable to say if there's discrimination there has to be racism as if they're one and the same. i just dont like to say there's so much racism given how open minded whites are. i can even understand if someone thought my distinction between discrimination and racism was a stupid distinction.
I think we should first disuse the terms "racist" and "racism" because they are nonsense terms Racism is a nonsense, malicious term (debateart.com)
What is logical to discuss is whether it's possible for a person to reject another race, purely on the basis of his/her skin, which could be called 'racial bias' or something along those lines.
I think the distinction you've drawn between 'black culture' and 'black skin color' is somewhat valid, because it is possible to reject someone's culture yet be accepting/neutral of their race. However, I'd argue that someone's culture is somewhat of a product of their biological race (which includes skin color), thus your distinction should be somewhat disagreed with (relative to the correlation between culture and race), but not entirely disagreed with. In other words, you are kinda showing racial bias someone's race when you reject their culture, but not entirely.
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@3RU7AL
(IFF) jewish asians are unquestionably "more intelligent" than everyone else (THEN) what the heck do you propose we do with this "information" ???
Recognize that fact.
The core disagreement is, whether or not we should hinge any particular POLICY on "skin-tone".What is your proposed conclusion if your contention is accepted ??
I haven't argued "policy" at all, so I don't know why you think this is a core disagreement when I haven't argued it.
My proposed conclusion is that we accept racial genetic differences for what they are: real.
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@Theweakeredge
hahahahahahah! oh my fucking god, 60 year old propaganda got you!
Firstly, the book was published in 1994. The FBI documents weren't released until decades after they were made, so they can't have been used as "propaganda" if they weren't released at the time.
Secondly, you haven't demonstrated that either is "propaganda". Merely stating that it is isn't sufficient.
This was during the time of Mccarthyinism, not only that but your source references exactly ZERO other sources
The book was written by the person who did the research on Martin's (plagiarized) writings. In essence, he is referencing himself because he is the person who conducted the analysis of Martin's works. It makes no sense to say that he needs to reference other people to cite the analysis he performed himself (i.e. if you engaged in analysis, you are the one making conclusions).
On top of that the FBI was openly against MLK, meaning that he had explicit reasons to lie.
You've made a leap in logic in assuming that because the FBI had a reason to lie, they have lied. You haven't proven that they did lie.
Furthermore, this paper calls homosexuality a "sexual perversion", and black peoples "n*groes". So no, I don't take it seriously.
This is a non-sequitur because you haven't established why usage of these words invalidate claims of Martin's: (1) adultery, and (2) having an illegitimate child, and (3) conspiring with Communists.
For example, calling Martin that n-word doesn't remove any chance that he was an adulterer.
You can wax lyrical about it being "FBI" papers all you like, that doesn't make them any more credible neccessarily, especially because they were published in 1968.
The source wasn't published in 1968, but instead created and kept top secret until decades later.
FBI papers are more credible than a random blog because it's an official institution that is regulated by governing bodies, so you are wrong about that, too.
Neither of your sources have any actual references funnily enough!
You are working under the assumption that if something isn't referenced, it is wrong.
If I say 2+2=4, that is not referenced, and yet we know it's right. Thus, your assumption is faulty.
He was a hero without doubt, who cares if he "wasn't christian"
The title of this thread pertains to whether he was a fraud.
Clearly, someone who: (1) plagiarized a lot, and (2) performed actions that are at-odds with his claimed faith, could be labelled as a fraud.
You conceding the fact that he is not Christian, whilst he claimed that he was, is a concession that he was a fraud. So when you say, "Regardless doesn't make him a fraud, make you an idiot", and you argued that he wasn't a fraud, it appears that for not understanding you've conceded the argument, you're the idiot :)
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@oromagi
But then when I ask for a definition of INTELLIGENCE you give me the definition for GENERAL INTELLIGENCE. I say that IQ doesn't cover all of what we recognize as intelligence.
- You disagree with me by saying that perception correlates well with test outcomes but in a later post agree that Dennison found that the correlation was weak for starters and only improved over time. Dennison only claims correlation to objective intelligence, which more or less agrees with my contention.
- You agree with me by limiting your definition of INTELLIGENCE to the smaller subset, GENERAL INTELLIGENCE.
My contention was only that GENERAL INTELLIGENCE or objective intelligence is not the same thing as intelligence generally. Huffcutt & Arthur would seem to agree with my point as does Dennison, as do you at some points in spite of your objection here.
I generally agree with what you're saying here.
People's notion of "intelligence" isn't as stringent (or frankly correct) as the scientific general intelligence. That's part of the reason that intelligence only correlates with general intelligence. Whilst it's important that people's heuristic understanding of intelligence correlates with general intelligence (because it helps showing general intelligence is grounded in reality), nobody would expect a heuristic understanding to be identical to a scientific term.
As for "IQ doesn't cover all of what we recognize as intelligence", "I.Q." not covering what is heuristically understood as intelligence does not mean we should make it match the heuristic understanding. As you've expressed multiple times, you think that "leadership skills" and "humor" should be included in a definition for intelligence, both of which don't cleanly test for I.Q. because of their learned components, hence why the more scientific general *shouldn't* perfectly correlate with the layman's definition of intelligence (i.e. what you see as "intelligence" isn't actually intelligence -- your colloquial understanding of intelligence isn't completely correct). Again, whatever intelligence factor there is in "leadership skills" and "humor" is *already* built into the definition of general intelligence. I believe this addresses the argument you made in the Bobby Fischer section, too (i.e. "raging" and "deluded" are heavily influenced by learned information).
Integrating multiple cognitive abilities in the service of solving a novel problem is also learned. Understimulated children often demonstrate cognitive deficits.
Studies will attempt to control for this by limiting the learned skills (or impact thereof) required to complete the I.Q. test. But the gravity of the skills is going to be far less than the learned, lived experience that would warp the intelligence measurement of things like "leadership skills" and "humor". If someone attends training, seminars and 1-on-1 coaching for leadership skills, and is compared against someone who has never had those experiences, how is that a valid test for intelligence when "leadership skills" here are heavily influenced by learned material? That would clearly a 'what do you know?' test, as opposed to general intelligence test.
It would be like giving an English test to an African tribe, one of which has never seen English before, and concluding that they have zero I.Q. because they couldn't answer anything. Clearly, you need to control for learned knowledge. Likewise, "leadership skills", "humor" etc. suffer, to some degree, from this problem, too.
I don't think most would agree with your assertion that IQ tests are only or even mostly interested in the heritability of general intelligence. Yes, that is the primary interest of the eugenicists you cite, which makes sense because their mission is to justify their assertions of political supremacy with some kind of objective measure of genetic superiority. However, the general figure for the heritability of IQ, according to the APA is 0.45 for children, and rises to around 0.75 for late adolescents and adults. Heritability measures in infancy are as low as 0.2, around 0.4 in middle childhood, and as high as 0.9 in adulthood. That is, stripped of influences of environment, genetics only show a weak correlation to IQ. I think its fair to say that most psychometrists, absent those tainted by political agenda, are trying to assess the whole picture, not genetic general intelligence alone but also the influence of environment and the relationship between the two.
Firstly, stop Ad homming people. Nobody of a logical mind cares who or what they are. What matters is whether they are correct or not.
Secondly, I.Q. tests by function do assess the genetic component of I.Q. That might not be the primary interest or even an interest of administering the test, but if you're controlling for learned knowledge, that's what they'll end up testing (to a high degree).
Thirdly, I actually pretty much agree with your quoted estimations of I.Q. heritability. Just to be clear: the environment does influence I.Q., especially in younger people wherein it is the dominant determinant of I.Q. So, to address your main concern with what I wrote, we don't want to be measuring purely the environment for I.Q. We don't want to test purely for learned knowledge that was acquired outside of the I.Q. test -- that's the environmental effect we absolutely don't want in an I.Q. test. Instead, we want to be measuring for I.Q. whilst limiting the impact these purely environmental impacts will have on the test.
I think you have circled around to agreeing with me. IQ can't capture all of what we call INTELLIGENCE including things like leaderships skills.
I don't agree "leadership skills" is an accurate measurement of I.Q. Some parts of leadership skills are probably aspect of general intelligence, but that isn't a reason to test for "leadership skills" specifically. So whilst I agree that I.Q. doesn't specifically measure for "leadership skills", measurement of I.Q. would be *worse* if it did.
I can see that some important qualities might be reflected by IQ. I have never seen an IQ test variant that quantified humor or empathy. I don't agree that such qualities must necessarily or naturally flow from general intelligence.
I don't know how many ways I can make this point, but we'll see:
If I attended multiple seminars for humor analysis, if I watched sitcoms daily, if I spent time in a bar testing my stand-up routine on people, would not those experiences influence my ability to produce humor? Would I not have an advantage in learned knowledge if we tested for humor, especially against someone who didn't do these things?
Do you see the difference between "learned knowledge" and general intelligence?
I'm not demanding an explanation, I'm illustrating the limitations of objective intelligence assessment. We are able to perceive differences in intelligence that we have no hope of quantifying within the limited scope of verbal measurement.
We don't need to answer this "why" in order for I.Q. to be a valid metric. The limitation you illustrated isn't relevant to the thread.
You'd have to define performance more specifically. The bell curvers were defining performance as holding a job for men and bearing children within wedlock for the ladies. Kirkegaard's survey was looking at education level, occupation level (*), and income level as measures of performance. I think IQ probably is a better or best predictor for educational, occupational, and financial attainment but again, all those measures fall within a certain Western paradigm. We want to be careful not to mistake such metrics as a measure of human worth or an indicator of superior ability.*I do wonder how "occupational levels" were measured and what biases revealed therein.
By performance, I mean ability to perform at work, ability to make income and ability to become educated.
I also think that bearing children within wedlock is a desirable life outcome for ladies (and society). However, this is absolutely debatable (and probably requires its own thread).
So, one of the in-built premises of my argument is that civilizations are desirable. When you keep mentioning "Western paradigm", I'm already positing that civilizations are preferable to things like nomadic tribes (so this "Western paradigm" would apply to non-Western areas, like Saudi Arabia and China). In order to keep these civilizations functional, people need to become educated, work jobs and acquire income. I prefer, as do most people, to live in a house with running water, electricity, medicine, disposable income etc. as opposed to anything else. Yes, I do think that is superior and more valuable to the alternatives.
"Occupational level was typically measured by
such occupational scales as Duncan Socioeconomic Index,
International Socioeconomic Index of Occupational Status,
NORC prestige scale, etc" -- Page 406 under the heading: '5.1.1. Socioeconomic success'
So, there's is a racial component to your assertions. I don't know how you could possibly make such an assertion while failing to control for Western values. Your definition of general intelligence may correlate with educational, occupational, and financial attainment but I assume that Bushmen are just as able to demonstrate their fluid ability to integrate multiple cognitive abilities in the service of solving problems within the context of the Kalahari as we are in the context of some Western metropolis. I likewise assume that if the Mbuti were running the tests for cognitive abilities, big city white boys might take a significant hit in the scoring.I may not be able to find a specific example of a Mbuti neuroscientist, but the stated avg IQ score across all of sub-Saharan Africa is only 71 and nevertheless we see some prestigious neuroscientists excelling in Western cultures. I do assume that some excellent individual Mbuti are entirely capable of such achievement given the right environment but if I'm reading you right, you don't.
I have used a racial example but that is not part of my "assertions". You can agree that I.Q. is a valid metric without believing that human races exist.
I don't particularly know about Pygmies, but I have done a small amount of research on Aboriginal Australians. They actually have a superior level of spatial awareness. If we were to use the same distribution as I.Q. test data presents, Aboriginal Australians have 119 points, which puts them above an entire standard deviation of the global average (can't find my source on this though). If you were to set-up a test that measured spatial awareness, Aboriginal Australians would almost certainly do the best. However, that doesn't mean they are intelligent or that it makes sense to measure intelligence through spatial awareness levels.
Clearly, if you find the Mbuti people who are five standard deviations (1 / 1744278) above their race's I.Q (you couldn't even find them lol), they are intelligent enough to become competent neuroscientists. This is not surprising. This doesn't meant that all Mbuti people are capable of becoming competent neuroscientists. This is why we don't use anecdotes.
FYI you referenced above that I.Q. is mostly genetic in adults. I don't know why you've decided to argue now that the environment could make for this gigantic gap in I.Q, when you don't even agree with that yourself based on the research you quoted.
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@oromagi
- Let's note that the Southern Poverty Law Center defines Gottfredson as a promoter of eugenicism, scientific racism, and white nationalism.
- Gottfredson has taken more than a quarter million dollars in grants from the White Supremacist Pioneer Fund to advance eugenics research.
These notes are both Ad Hominem attacks and are thus logically invalid.
I'm surprised a debater of your caliber would make such a worthless argument.
- The table also appears in "The Bell Curve"
Your point?
- Ultimately, this data comes from the National Longitudinal Survey of Youth 1979 which began in 1979 with 12,686 men and women born in 1957-64 (ages 14–22). Members were interviewed annually from '79 to '94 but this table was published in '94 so this data cover outcomes over a 14 year period. Oversamples of military and poor white respondents were dropped after these stats were generated.
- For these statistics, only white non-Hispanic respondents were included.
- Only a few of the people in the sample took IQ tests in high school. Of these, a median correlation of .81 was inferred between IQ tests and Armed Services Vocational Aptitude test. That is, in spite of your claim, that top number is not IQ but an estimated IQ inferred from the ASVA.
Well this is a much better argument.
I'm not yet sure why it's important that "only white non-Hispanic respondents were included". Are you arguing that the results would have been significantly different if the other racial groups were included?
For your second dot-point, we should note that I.Q. only correlates with itself at 0.87. Still, the researcher's estimates have this 0.06 gap because ASVA is 0.06 less correlate than I.Q. is for I.Q, so you're right in arguing that this is a limitation of the study. However, an unaccounted 0.06 correlation effect is quite small and we should regard the impact it could have as such.
- Your claim, " there is a researched table that shows the percentage of undesirable life outcomes occurring, relative to the IQ of the person" is false.
- This is a highly abridged table, showing selected results from a table intended to show that intelligence is a better predictor of individual outcomes over 14 years than socio-economic status. Obviously, using the Armed Services test as means of quantifying intelligence introduces significant bias (nobody's looking at musical aptitude or sense of humor in an Armed Services aptitude test) and confining data to non-Hispanic whites obviously distorts the assessment of socio-economic status.
- The data is so old fashioned that to qualify as middle class you had to have a high school diploma, never been incarcerated, remain married to first wife and never give birth to a child out of wedlock. Better than 40% of modern women have children out of wedlock but Herrnstein and Murray throw all of these women into the failed end of socio-economic outcomes.
- Super old fashioned, kind of racist, and not using IQ.
I've already addressed your first dot-point's sentiment in my other response to you this notion that I.Q. doesn't take into account the intelligence components within "musical aptitude" or "sense of humor". I specifically referred to your criticism of lacking "leadership skills", but the general sentiment of the rebuttal should apply for "musical aptitude" or "sense of humor":
General intelligence ('g', of which I.Q. is a proxy for) has built-in a calculation of these facets. In other words, general intelligence does not reject the notion that things like "empathy" and "humor" (to some degree) are part of general intelligence. So, in essence, I agree with you that I.Q. should factor these attributes into it, and it already does to some degree.
The reason why it only factors these attributes "to some degree" is because a lot of those traits you listed can be learned. Clearly, "leadership" can be taught to people to some degree, and whilst you could argue that some people have a natural affinity for leadership (I agree), the environment will play a large part in a person's ability to acquire leadership skills (and thus make them better at leadership). It makes no sense when assessing I.Q., which attempts to assess genetic general intelligence, to have factors which are purely environment factors. In other words, testing "leadership skills" isn't going to provide us a strong correlate for raw general intelligence because it is muddied too much by environmental factors, defeating the purpose of measuring general intelligence. Instead, it is better to test for general intelligence and let the genetic components of "humor", "leadership", "empathy" etc. be naturally integrated into the general intelligence assessment.
For you second dot point, the data remains valid because the cultural snapshot applied to *all* participants at the time. Effectively, controls for environment. I'd also argue that, "high school diploma, never been incarcerated, remain married to first wife and never give birth to a child out of wedlock" are all positive life outcomes, hence the data remains valid. 40% of modern women, I would argue, are likely to have lower I.Q. for making a bad decision (child out of wedlock). Albeit, this point probably requires its own thread (I might make one). Hence, this data remains valid, in regards to I.Q.
Your final dot point is mostly Ad Hominem against the data. "Not using IQ" is addressed above.
- You claim that "Schmidt and Hunter (1990) examined the correlation between job performance and IQ" but that is false.
- But Hunter and Schmidt explain, "The hypothesis was tested that the standard deviation of employee output as a percentage of mean output increases as a function of the complexity level of the job." The paper broadly found that as a job grew more complex, a wider variety of output was delivered by employees. Nothing about intelligence or IQ at all. In fact, a quick search for terms "IQ" "Intel" and "Quotient" all came up zero.
- The table you snapshot and the data you describe are not in the paper you linked to.
So Hunter and Schmidt use the term "mental ability" and "cognitive ability" instead of "IQ". It's fair enough to say that I should have noted this in the OP.
The table I snapshotted was not directly from the study, but rather a compilation of data from the study. For example, Hunter and Schmidt refer to mental ability specifically here:
"On the basis of Hunter's (1980) findings, the true-score correlations for general mental ability and supervisory ratings are .65 for
high-complexity jobs, .57 for medium-complexity jobs, and .44 for low complexity jobs (when complexity is as defined in the text and in Footnote I)."
The average of: 0.65+0.57+0.44 = 0.5533 (to 4 d.p.), but the data they used had a higher percentage of medium complexity and low complexity jobs, and so the average of the data they used makes "mental ability" correlate at roughly 0.51 in their study (as depicted in the table).
Hopefully that makes it clear where the data is coming from.
- You claim that Huffcutt & Arthur found that IQ was the best predictor of job performance but that is false.
- Huffcutt & Arthur found that Hunter & Hunter (1984) had totally under-represented the value of the job interview and went on to conclude, "highly structured interviews provide essentially the same validity as ability tests"
- The paper concluded the opposite of what you claimed it concluded.
- Huffcutt & Arthur did not specify Intelligence as the ability tested, nor IQ as the test of Intelligence.
Claiming that "highly structured interviews provide essentially the same validity as ability tests" doesn't detract from the validity of I.Q as a metric. It's possible that both "highly structured interviews" and I.Q. are valid metrics. Furthermore, the Huffcutt and Arthur themselves gave 0.14 correlation for "interview", and specify that as the structure of the interview increases, its validity (read: correlation) increases:
"[Under the heading 'Discussion'] "...our relatively sophisticated system of structure classification results in several insights into the relationship between level of structure and the validity of the interview. Specifically, these results (a) confirm that structure is a major moderator of interview validity, (b) demonstrate that validity generally increases with increasing structure..."
It's worth noting that intelligence/I.Q. is denoted as "Ability Composite" in this paper (which is admittedly a strange way to say intelligence).
- You claim "with education, occupation and income levels, IQ consistently produced the best correlation."
- We should note that more than a hundred different types of intelligence tests were used- which raises plenty of questions regarding the correlations between one kind of intelligence test and the next.
- This data claims that neither intelligence nor socio-economic index correlates very strongly to income.
- I would think socio-economic status would correlate with income far more than claimed here.
We don't need to know how well I.Q. tests correlate with each other. All we need to know is how well the I.Q. test correlates with general intelligence, and then we can take an average of all the I.Q. tests in question.
You can think your final dot-point if you like, but you don't have any data to back you up. I do.
- You claim "this heuristic guess correlates very well with IQ"
- but, in fact, Dennison only reported "weakly correlated with objective intelligence"
- As you say, this study reduces the value of perceived intelligence because shy people's intelligence is consistently undervalued in the first few meeting and talkative people's intelligence is consistently overvalued in the first few meetings. This weakens further Denisson's "weak correlation"
I'll address these together because they're essentially the same point.
Yes, the correlation is stated as "weakly correlated" in Dennison's abstract. However, as stated in both studies, this correlation improves over time as participants talked more and more with each other. The increasing correlation compounds upon itself until it correlates very well with an I.Q. test. That's how people can heuristically determine people's I.Q. -- definitely not with a glance or short conversation.
So, for clarity: people guessing other people's I.Q. has weak correlation, BUT, when given enough time with the person, the correlation with an I.Q. test becomes quite strong. Without that caveat (time), I agree with you.
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@MarkWebberFan
I took the American SAT once. Irrelevant, I know, but I just want to say that it made absolutely no sense to me. I failed it while international schools enjoyed a huge jump because there was a sizeable Australian expats scoring high in the SAT. I'm guessing non-whites mingle with them to score well on it too. My point: tests are region-specific. They have no validity outside of their intended audience. The IQ test doesn't measure intelligence because if it did, the test would score accurately across different cultures.
SATs are not by default IQ tests, but they can be (to some degree) if you control for whatever cultural/learned bias there is. Obviously, to exaggerate your point of "tests are region-specific", the SAT isn't going to be a good IQ test if the participants don't know English, seeing that the test is written in English.
IQ tests mostly control as many confounding variables as possible so that it best deduces general intelligence (g).
So, saying that an SAT isn't a good IQ test does not mean that IQ tests are invalid.
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@ebuc
A fraud? Not for most part ergo topic is meant to mislead and distract from the more signifcant facts in regards MLK:
Firstly, you've outright conceded that MLK was a serial plagiarist and a Christian that did some severely un-Christian things. With this in mind, it is nonsense to argue that my argument "is meant to mislead and distract", when it proves the argument I am making. In other words, if I claim that MLK is a fraud, and I make arguments as to why, that is the opposite of "misleading" lol.
Secondly, I'll argue that you're attempting to "mislead and distract" by shoehorning anti-Trump ideological zealotry. MLK's position relative to Trump and his supporters is besides the point, as MLK could be better than Trump in many things yet still be a fraud.
Lastly, you also "mislead and distract" by arguing that I am misleading and distracting when I argue points that are directly relevant to proving my conclusion (that MLK is a fraud). In essence, you "mislead and distract" from the topic at hand.
1} more courageous and brave then Trumpet or his cult of Trumpeteers,2} more courageous than any president since MLK"s shooting,
These are:
(1) Bare assertions
(2) Not a measure of fraudulence as it entirely possible to be both "courageous" and a "fraud", and fraud isn't mitigated levels of courage
3} largest crowd every recorded at the --not like the false claims of Trumpet--- ..." The March on Washington was a massive protest march that occurred in August 1963, when some 250,000 people gathered in front of the Lincoln Memorial in Washington, D.C. Also known as the March on Washington for Jobs and Freedom, the event aimed to draw attention to continuing challenges and inequalities faced by African Americans a century after emancipation. It was also the occasion of Martin Luther King, Jr.’s now-iconic “I Have A Dream” speech."... uhh it was also peacful.
Having the largest crowd does not invalidate accusations of fraudulence lol.
4} this organization was done primarily by a person who used those little 3 x 6 library like cards of the time,
How does this address charges of fraudulence?
5} and with all of the above, consider, the threats on this man and his families life, to find a just and fair USA.
If I am threatened by someone, does that mean I am not a fraud?
This topic is a Trumpeteer cult mind-set ---lies, distractions from truth, more repeated lies, more distractions, more lies, more distractions etc--- attempt to distract away from integrity, justice, fair play etc. of a man { King }who was far above and beyond what USA has seen in Washington Republicans before president Biden, and current republicans.All of these Trumpeteers need to be sent to a prison designed for special-case educations of morality, truth and justice.
Oh you're right.
MLK can't be a fraud because "this topic is a Trumpeteer cult mind-set".
Flawless logic from a rational, non-ideologically possessed mind.
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@zedvictor4
Interesting if accurate.
The second source is literal FBI documents.
The first source comes from a book which is arguably more questionable than the literal FBI documents.
I'd be willing to hear counter-arguments as to why the arguments made are faulty, but it seems like most people, even people who disagree with MLK being a fraud, are happy to conceded these arguments anyway.
But just exemplifies human nature.He became a charismatic figurehead who enthralled the masses.A bit like D TrumpA bit like A HitlerWhat does this really say about the rest the dimwits who allow themselves to become spellbound......Human nature too, I suppose.
I'm not sure "dimwit" is the right word for this. People seem to need a higher purpose to believe in -- this "dimwit" behavior might actually be normal human behavior. Whether it's God, Hitler, Trump or someone else, most people don't want to think too much for themselves and are happy to be followers of something grander. It would be interesting to know what causes this phenomenon (if it is indeed one). Perhaps it's natural fear of the unknown. Perhaps it's learned helplessness. It's probably a combination of a variety of things.
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@rbelivb
A typical use of the word behavior is in relation to "the way in which someone conducts oneself," i.e. directed human action. To say that defining racism in terms of beliefs about differences in behavior is "nonsense" because of differences in sweating-rates, is in my view a fringe application of the concept of behavior. Likewise, if we said that two people were "behaving differently" although their intentional actions were identical, because their hair grew differently, or because their hearts beat at different speeds, this could be seen as a fringe use of the term also. Therefore, if someone called a psychological theory about behavior nonsense because it did not capture differences in hair growth or heart rates, this would not be a valid objection.
In the Merriam-Webster definition you provided (a credible source, for sure), we find another definition that support my case:
"anything that an organism does involving action and response to stimulation"
So, your label of "fringe" literally exists with the same credence as your other definition, thus generating a contradiction in your reasoning for "typical use".
In any case, my point in the OP was to implicitly agree that yes, different sweating rates of races *shouldn't* be considered "racist". However, when we see differences in I.Qs of different races, despite in your own words that *not* being "behavior", you shouldn't be ascribing anyone who comments on racial I.Q gaps as "racist".
Again, even if I grant your "typical use" definition (I don't), this still generates a contradiction in your argument's consistency. You cannot have both:
(1) Sweating not be subject to "racism", due to it not being a "behavior"
(2) Racial I.Q differences being subject to "racism", despite it not being a "behavior"
If I were to list various instances of "racism" / "racial hatred" and asked whether these constituted a "personal grudge against a race" it would surely come down to your own opinion which instances you would deem appropriate and which not. Many leftists would claim that Charles Murray's motivation for writing his books was a personal racial animus, while those on the right will say that Critical Race Theory advocates have a personal grudge against the white race. How do we determine who is right?[...]But this is the problem as I laid out above: your attribution of "racial animus" depends totally on your own personal opinion. If we asked advocates of ethnic cleansing throughout history, they would say that they were not acting out of emotion, but that their policies were totally necessary and unavoidable. Who should we believe? Will we need to administer psychological tests to determine people's emotional state before we can condemn any of these policies?
So you're right in implying it's difficult to assess a "personal grudge against a race" for being a motivation.
However, that doesn't invalidate the fact that something is or is not "racism"/"racial hatred" -- this exists independently.
Off the cuff, I don't know whether Charles Murray or CRT advocates are "racist"/"racially hateful" or not. I'd have to assess the evidence either way, and even then I personally might not get it right. Inductively determining intention isn't an easy thing to do, but that doesn't mean it depends "totally on your own personal opinion". You can refer to facts and such to determine this.
Still, this predilection is superior to the current nonsense term "racist" is.
It seems that by your standard, the only racial disparity we should have tools to condemn, are examples involving people being murdered, purely and explicitly for the reason of an emotional reaction to their race, and anything short of this is deemed trivial nonsense.
I only responded to your comment on serial killers. I don't think that's the limit of people showing racial animus and that anything short of murder cannot be racial animosity.
Yet slavery in the US was racialized. What should we call that? Of course, many slave owners did harbour deep racial resentment, but what if they had been cold and calculating? Your argument seems to be that we should not use critical language to describe the racial dimension of this at all.
I'd argue that slavery was racialized in the US for many reasons, but that slavery was in itself didn't require racial animus. This is a complicated topic that requires its own thread because a lot of the relevant evidence is inductive. So, I'd question this premise of your question before I answer "what should we call that?"
I'd also push back on your assertion that "many slave owners did habour deep racial resentment", because there simply isn't sufficient evidence for that. The odd anecdote here and there, which can be dubious in themselves (there's a lot of money today in pushing for reparations), isn't going to outweigh the data that was collected. Again, this is a topic that requires its own thread, but this time because I think the current view of US slavery is horribly wrong.
Btw the "cold and calculating" part only applied to the serial killer comment.
I agree that average racial IQ scores likely are not identical down to the last decimal.
Excellent.
We didn't have to devolve into 'hurr hurr racist' like some other users do.
We didn't have to imply that this is a conservative viewpoint that is going to put blacks back into slavery.
It's an attempt at a scientific fact. That is all.
I will decline that because I do think your arguments have conservative implications. You basically seem to be stripping away any language we could use to criticize racial imbalances or injustices beyond the most extreme examples of explicitly racially motivated hate crimes. You prefer personal criticism of the motivations of individuals over broad social critiques - this is deeply conservative.
You still haven't quoted me. You're just further proving that you have indeed strawmanned me.
Whether or not races have differing I.Qs is a matter for science and data-based research, not political ideology zealotry. Trying to sledgehammer partisan terms ("deeply conservative", "different roles" for African Americans), without being able to quote me on where I've made these claims, makes you look like a goose.
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Martin Luther King plagiarized his PhD
It came to light in 1987 that Martin plagiarized a lot of his PhD. In particular, he plagiarized at least 45% of the first part of his dissertation, and 21% of the second.
For his bachelor degree, Martin also filled his papers with lot of "unacknowledged material lifted verbatim". Of these papers, one in particular has 20 out of the 24 paragraphs lifted verbatim.
Martin's 'Letter From Birmingham City Jail' has passages stolen so often that he knew them by heart.
Well-known passages from his famous 'I have a Dream' speech were stolen from the 1952 address by Archibald Carey, a black preacher. Martin then copyrighted the entire 'I have a Dream' speech.
No one was safe from Martin's plagiarism, not even himself: at university, Martin cycled his old work verbatim without referencing himself many times.
Martin Luther King was two-faced
Official FBI documents of Martin showed:
- that despite being a Christian, Martin managed to have 4 mistresses (read: adultery) as well as an illegitimate child (read: child out of wedlock), both of which most people wouldn't consider Christian actions. You can add to this the multiple sex-orgies Martin engaged in (which I'm sure the FBI had fun in documenting)
- worked with dozens of Communists to help them plan events and speeches (at a time when America was fighting Communism)
So, in these regards, Martin Luther King was a fraud.
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@Theweakeredge
I don't have the time for responding to all your bullshit,
You're yet to prove you're capable of responding.
while you are correct to say that that is the "origin" it is not the only source that comes to this conclusion.
I already explained why this argument (more difference within than between) doesn't hold water. You haven't addressed that explanation. Just because someone else made the argument, that doesn't mean the argument is any better lol.
If it differs from Lewontin's argument, explain to me where.
Also... what? No, we are talking about genetic diversity, not difference - they are not "sub-species" they are varied humans - the only difference genetically speaking is a level of melatin.
I've already provided the Bamshad (2004) data that clearly shows that even super simple "African, European and Asian" delineations produces clear, racially distinct groups at only 100 loci/SNP. If the only difference is "level of melatin", then how come they are nearly perfectly racially group with such simple groups? You need to address this data because it directly contradicts your bare assertion.
But we don't need to use complicated methods to dismiss your argument. We only need to observe the differences in racial skulls to see difference that isn't just "level of melatin": main-qimg-c6c858a15c33d9c1f1d3deb7bacb6f42 (602×708) (quoracdn.net) . If you don't like pictures for whatever reason, the science backs this claim up: "The race and sex of the human skull can be determined by craniometry" Durbar (2014) Microsoft Word - 07. (pharmainfo.in) .
Your racist is showing.
Racist is a nonsense, malicious term.
Distribution of SNPs: A total of 146 SNPs were found in the total sample; 53 of them were observed only once (i.e., singletons) and 22 only twice (doubletons). The number of variant sites found in the African sample was 118, of which 68 (36 singletons, 15 doubletons, and 17 others) were not found in the Eurasian sequences (i.e., they were unique). In contrast, in the Eurasian sample only 78 variant sites were found and only 28 of them (17 singletons, 4 doubletons, and 7 others) were unique, though the combined sample size was twice the African sample size. Thus, beyond the 50 variants already observed in the African sample, the combined Eurasian sample contains in addition only 17 singletons and 11 nonsingleton variants. The high frequencies of singletons in the African and Eurasian samples are similar to those observed in other studies (Kaessmannet al. 1999; Zhaoet al. 2000; Yuet al. 2001). Note that in a neutral Wright-Fisher population with θ, the expected number of mutations of size i in a random sample of n sequences is θ/i (Fu 1995). So the number of singletons should be twice the number of doubletons and thrice the number of tripletons. In our total sample we found 53 singletons, 22 doubletons, and 7 tripletons. Therefore, there is an excess of singletons, which suggests a population expansion in the recent past.
Explain to me in your own words what any of this means.
What I'm saying is that typically, white and black people are more genetically similar than black people are to other black people.
I know what you're saying because I've already addressed it LOL.
So most differences you view today, are indeed due to environmental changes. Have fun being a racist.
Racist is a nonsense, malicious term.
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@rbelivb
The form of your argument implies that, in order for a term to be meaningful, it must apply strictly under the most liberal use possible according to documented definitions of the term.
I don't agree with this framing of "most liberal". It's more liberal than having one definition, but, again, you haven't provided any objectivity as to your definition being must-use jargon. I literally told you what was required to make your case ("**If** you could demonstrate to me that 'behavioral trait' is jargon, then I will concede this"). Instead, you've decided to dance around with framing that doesn't have objectivity.
My argument is that the definition of almost any term can be applied in such a loose way that would contradict common usage - especially in e.g. social sciences.
I could argue that your definition is "loose" and that we should therefore not accept it -- your point here is moot without providing the evidence that your definition is objectively jargon.
In other words, in my view it is impossible to constrain usage of these kind of terms by a strict jargon which would make their usage uniform. To rebut me on this, you could provide such a definition of "racial hatred".
You cannot simultaneously claim that:
(1) My definition is too loose
(2) Strict jargon is not possible with the term
And yet you do exactly that.
Animus is a synomym for hatred, so you have restated the term in its own definition.
You're close but not quite right. Hatred is something within the realm of intense disliking, whilst animus veers towards a personal grudge. That's why Merriam-Webster lists animosity (synonym for animus) as being only related to hatred Hatred Synonyms, Hatred Antonyms | Merriam-Webster Thesaurus .
Also, hatred is an emotion. What if we imagine a cold and calculating serial killer, who only kills victims of a certain race, but without any emotion? What if Hitler was such a psychopath, who did not feel any personal feelings of animus toward Jews? Then by your terms we would have no language to condemn such actions.
Firstly, that's not a great example because Hitler very openly showed animosity towards Jewish people.
Still, I'll respond in good faith to what you meant. I think race-based attacks are all spawned by this animus. That's why some write 1000 page manifestos of why they're about to attack a certain race. Serial killers tend to be indifferent to who they kill, and do so sometimes for the thrill of killing, or sometimes to get back at society. I've never heard of a serial killer killing a certain race of people without having hatred of said race -- that doesn't add up.
Further, this term does not apply to an insitution such as slavery, ethnic cleansing, or any other societal racial injustice. We would constantly need to be tying such institutions back to some theoretical emotion felt by the people responsible for them. Do you believe that such societal-level injustices are unimaginable, or that we should not need language to condemn them?
I'm going to preface this by saying slavery was a bad thing (people struggle to control themselves on this topic). The term shouldn't apply to slavery because that's not what slavery was about. Slaves were (sadly) functionally productions tools that produced value. In other words, instead of having a cotton-picking machine, you could get a human to do it. You weren't financially incentivized to racially abuse your slaves (although some slave owners would). Slavery was a business decision, not an attack on any race due to their race.
I think you need to re-think "ethnic cleansing" in terms of racial animus. It's very clearly designed to remove a particular race. If you had a liking or indifference towards a race, why would you want to mass remove it?
I'm not sure what other "societal racial injustice[s]" you'd apply to this, so I'll leave it there.
I can reject the entire construct, or even accepting it I can suspend judgment on what any group's IQ is.
You can't reject it lol. It's either: (1) racial I.Qs can differ, or (2) racial I.Qs cannot differ -- there is no third option.
You've moved the goalposts by now implying this was about a specific group's I.Q.
It follows by implication, that if you think the behaviors of groups innately tend to be different, then their roles in society will naturally be different.
Nope. That's faulty logic on your end. I've only argued that racial I.Qs differ. That is it. You're the one supplying anything further than that. Stop doubling down and just admit that you strawmanned me.
You argued that the term itself is nonsense on the basis of the first sentence of its Wikipedia article.The first sentence of the Wikipedia article on X isn't a valid definition -> X is nonsense
Yeah the first sentence is nonsense and the other parts don't rectify this.
If I disagreed with the Catholic Church in 1500 for saying the Earth was round, and then was labelled a heretic, does that make me wrong?
If I disagreed with "non-racists" in 2021 for saying that human races have differing I.Qs, and the was labelled a racist, does that make me wrong?
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@Barney
If you're not a just a cowardly forum troll who doesn't believe their own words, issue the debate challenge.
Lol relax, dude.
I've already posted my response to what you wrote. Again, if you don't think it addresses what you wrote, then you need to explain why, instead of restating your conclusion over and over. If you don't want to do that, then just stop @ing me lol.
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@zedvictor4
I didn't think this post was very good, so I initially ignored it. However, it got 5 likes, so I'll respond to it.
I am Caucasian by definition, but sweat freely. Does that make me a racist?Though, am I racist because I am not Korean.No.
I don't think anyone would disagree with something this, which is why I made this thread.
Racism is about unreasonably discriminating on the basis of perceivable difference, and not about ones particular propensity to perspire.
So the parallel I later draw is that sweating propensity (to a large degree) is genetic. No one calls someone "racist" for saying that African Americans have a greater capacity to sweat.
However, when I say that intelligence propensity is (to a large degree) genetic, that DOES count as "racist".
See why I used the sweating analogy?
Everyone discriminates internally but not everyone allows their internal judgements to manifest externally.
Sure.
For sure, there is currently a whole lot of malicious PC racism going on....But that's largely based upon the possibility of a cash reward.....Fraud.
This is a large claim that isn't supported.
Interestingly my wife sweats very little....So does that suggest that she is Korean?
I have no idea how you think that I made an OP arguing that your sweating capacity determines race.
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@zedvictor4
Life outcomes are influenced by a plethora of social factors.
Agree, although some life outcomes are more affected by I.Q. than others (e.g. income only being 0.22 correlate with I.Q, but job performance clearing 0.5 on different studies).
IQ is influenced by life outcomes and inherent predisposition.
It's another thread topic (because it requires a lot of citations), but I'd argue that I.Q. is mostly genetic. So whilst "life outcomes" can change your I.Q, your inherent predisposition has a greater impact.
Therefore research would suggest that life outcomes + predisposition = IQ = life outcomes.
True.
Though a high IQ is no guarantee of social success.
True, but you're more likely to be successful the higher your I.Q. is.
Research and statistics are indicative of trends and expectancies....The normal expectancies relative to a particular social environment, as it were.So basically, IQ is a valid metric of IQ expectancy, relative to social and physiological factors that might or might not positively or negatively influence life outcomes.
I.Q. is a proxy for general intelligence. That's why we can substitute the word "intelligence" with "I.Q." and have it make a lot of sense in various scenarios, as the data I provided in the OP suggests.
So are we proving anything that we didn't already know?
I've encountered several people on here that outright reject the concept of I.Q. influencing anything.
I'd say most people I've met on here reject I.Q. being valid for measuring intelligence to some degree.
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@Athias
What was this "degree"?
I screenshotted and linked the relevant correlations in the OP. Depending on the life outcome, it's anywhere from 0.22-0.53. Most studies produce moderate correlation.
Let's scrutinize these correlation coefficients as it concerns I.Q.:Correlation with education level:I.Q. : .49Correlation with occupation level:I.Q. : .41Correlation with income level:I.Q. : .22And while the strength of correlation coefficients varies among researchers' metrics, these coefficients are weak to, at best, moderate.
Almost all the correlations are moderate, from across the studies.
There isn't any scrutinizing of what I wrote. You've mostly restated what I wrote.
I.Q. does not measure intelligence... It, at best, gauges classroom discipline.
Through the studies I've cited, I've shown that I.Q. mostly has moderate correlates with positive life outcomes, so I.Q. is measuring something to some degree. The fact that I.Q. is a proxy for general intelligence, and general intelligence is consistently a top-performer amongst these measurements of life outcomes (often the top-performer), shows that intelligence is probably measuring intelligence to some degree, at the very least. We can add to this the fact that what people generally consider to be intelligent correlates very well with I.Q. test performance.
Flatly asserting that "I.Q. does not measure intelligence" requires argumentation and evidence, none of which you've provided.
Also, you haven't provided any evidence to assert that I.Q. "at best, gauges classroom discipline".
I.Q. is as "valid" as a dance score, or rating of attractiveness.
I can mostly agree with you on the dancing point. Although, Olympic gymnastics does have components wherein there is a dance score Balance Beam at the Olympics: Guide to Scoring, Moves and More - The New York Times (nytimes.com) . It's pretty damn hard to operationalize dance into scorable metrics, but it can be done with some success.
As for attractiveness, it's funny how you've picked something that is relatively objective. For example, things like higher cheekbones Why Cheekbones Matter In Modelling | What Makes A Face Attractive Ep. 1 - YouTube and the eye region Why The Eyes Make Or Break A Face | What Makes A Face Attractive Ep. 2 - YouTube have impacts on whether someone is objectively more attractive.
Perhaps you're like Ragnar and that other guy who most things in life are subjective, but that's just a guess.
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@oromagi
I do not disagree that IQ is a valid metric of something, just not intelligence.
Do you see any issue with the data I provided?
I think the results are repeatable enough to conclude that IQ measures some aspects of the human intellect but hardly encompasses what humans mean when we say intelligence.
According to the data I provided, that isn't true. That's why a heuristic evaluation of people's intelligence correlated really well with a formal I.Q. test.
We were just recently discussing Bobby Fisher's high IQ although that sad bastard was an unemployable schizophrenic who pissed himself to death because he wasn't smart enough to go to a doctor. Was Bobby Fisher therefore intelligent?
Firstly, this is an anecdote. I'm making a case for macrosocietal trends, not an exhaustive list of every single possibility for any human that has existed or will exist.
Secondly, intelligence only correlates with positive life outcomes (as I specified in the OP), it DOES NOT dictate them. It's perfectly possible for someone to be highly intelligent (pretty sure Bobby had 160 I.Q.) and fail with intersubjective 'success' metrics in life.
I know a fair number of brilliant manic depressives but the people I know with a real genius for living an admirable life would probably score about 100 on that test.
You love anecdotes lol.
I think IQ is over-rated and fairly slanted towards a 19th century European male model of success- lawyers and doctors and engineers. What of empathy? What of self-awareness? What of leadership and problem-solving? What of wit and humor- clearly signs of intelligence that no IQ test can capture. What of instinct- which is often the smartest part of us though we don't understand how or why? IQ might correlate with job performance because it favors those intellects which dot their i's and cross their t's, but tidy thinkers are seldom inspired and the truly creative seldom score high in IQ.
General intelligence ('g', of which I.Q. is a proxy for) has built-in a calculation of these facets. In other words, general intelligence does not reject the notion that things like "empathy" and "humor" (to some degree) are part of general intelligence. So, in essence, I agree with you that I.Q. should factor these attributes into it, and it already does to some degree.
The reason why it only factors these attributes "to some degree" is because a lot of those traits you listed can be learned. Clearly, "leadership" can be taught to people to some degree, and whilst you could argue that some people have a natural affinity for leadership (I agree), the environment will play a large part in a person's ability to acquire leadership skills (and thus make them better at leadership). It makes no sense when assessing I.Q., which attempts to assess genetic general intelligence, to have factors which are purely environment factors. In other words, testing "leadership skills" isn't going to provide us a strong correlate for raw general intelligence because it is muddied too much by environmental factors, defeating the purpose of measuring general intelligence. Instead, it is better to test for general intelligence and let the genetic components of "humor", "leadership", "empathy" etc. be naturally integrated into the general intelligence assessment.
We can recognize that dogs are smarter than sheep but an IQ test can't tell us why. Or why some dogs are smarter than others. Clearly adults are smarter than children in most ways so intelligence changes and adapts as we grow and age. Obviously, there's more to intelligence than can be expressed in letters and numbers and in fact those abstractions came along only recently, long after humans had distinguished themselves as more intelligent than any other species.
You're moving the goalposts when you demand of I.Q. to explain "why". I.Q. is designed to be a proxy for general intelligence. That's it. Is it a valid metric in that regard? I've argued yes.
To analogize, a sheep doesn't need to understand why eating grass makes it feel better. It just eats the grass and feels better. Does that mean that because it doesn't understand "why" eating grass makes it feel better, eating grass shouldn't be done? Similarly, we don't completely understand why brains generate different I.Qs. We see general intelligence proxy tests (I.Q. tests) and see that some people perform better than others. Does that mean we shouldn't use I.Q. tests?
Overall, I'm IQ skeptical and my experience tells me (hey, what about experience?) that applying numbers to people's capacity is often self-defeating or at least self-limiting. Tell people that a 4 minute mile is the limit of human capability and for some reason everybody believes it until one day that record is broken and suddenly thousands more find that ability within themselves.
Applying numbers (based on I.Q. results) to people's capacity produces moderate correlations to desirable life outcomes. It's also often the best metric for predicting performance. Clearly, I.Q. is having some impact on performance.
I agree that if you inspire people in various ways, you'll have them performing better. But you'll never have 55 I.Q. Pygmies becoming competent neuro-scientists at Yale, and you'll frustrate everyone involved if you force it.
How would you define intelligence?
Any definition that describes 'general intelligence' is what I'm referring to. But I'll give a specific one:
General intelligence is the fluid ability to integrate multiple cognitive abilities in the service of solving a novel problem and thereby accumulating crystalized knowledge that, in turn, facilitates further higher-level reasoning General Intelligence - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics .
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@rbelivb
Just pointing out that you stopped responding just when I challenged you to provide an absolute criteria for "racial hatred". If you could not provide such a definition then your case really doesn't make much sense.
Yeah so there's these things called 'responsibilities', such as a job, paying bills etc. that take up time. I also have a lot of people I haven't responded to that have been waiting longer for a response. Sometimes I would rather go outside and enjoy my time that way, too.
Wait your turn.
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@3RU7AL
I'm just not sure that "racism" is any more "evil" than hating and or discriminating against someone for their religion (and or non-religion) and or hating people because they believe the earth is flat and or because they don't want to be forced to accept a "vaccine".
I wouldn't describe racism as something "evil" because that's a nebulous term.
The whole point of this thread is to remind people that racial differences are scientifically plausible. It's nonsense when discussing the scientific plausibility of racial differences is labelled as "racist", thereby preventing us from gauging the scientific plausibility of racial differences. Just as when listening to someone arguing for the scientific plausibility of homosexuality being genetic, you wouldn't logically accept "heretic" as a counter-argument ", you wouldn't accept the term "racist".
Why is it ok to make fun of people for one thing and NOT ok to make fun of them for some other thing??
Where was this done?
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@MarkWebberFan
I'm curious. In your argument, where would you place exceptions to such a generalized claim? I believe attraction is contingent on time and place. I want to know where the exceptions lie in your argument. If I met a stranger in an unfamiliar environment, I am more likely to develop feelings of attraction toward him. Similarly, 2 travelling individuals have a better chance of developing a do-or-die romance together than 2 teachers living under the same school. I argue that this will happen irrespective of the target sample's genetic similarity (as you've mentioned).
I'm not sure where all the exceptions occur, or really any of them lol. All I know is that it's a generalized rule that, in a macrosocietal sense, becomes the mode for any group of people.
Just to be clear, I'm talking about a general coming together as a result of similarity, which sometimes applies to romantic interests, but not always (e.g. friends, acquaintances). I'm in no way claiming that I know every exception to this rule.
Plus, I think infatuation is love and love requires a steady dose of pleasure. What you're talking about in your reply to me sounds a lot like marriage. I believe that's completely different than infatuation.
I agree with you on this point.
Yes, the studies I found on sexual relationships were about marriage, hence the marriage slant.
I'd even go so far as to say that it's possible to have hot sex with someone and not like them at all (beyond their face/body). Hate sex is also a thing. I'd guess they're behaviors men are more likely to engaged in, though. I'm guessing these are some exceptions to the rule you asked me about before.
I think my learned values could very well originate from my genes as is my decision to remain an apostate. But, I'm not an evolutionary psychologist. Again, you're talking about marriage. Marriage requires careful compromise and calm, small doses of romance to keep it afloat. It merely requires small embers of happiness to survive its grueling and punishing outbursts of disagreements. Again, I appreciate the source, but I want you to include what happens when an armenian fell in love with a turk? I'm pretty sure they have nothing in common and their parents would probably threaten them at gunpoint if they choose to love one another.
They might be more similar than we think. They might not be similar at all. It's an anecdote. Who knows?
I think that counter-examples still run contrary to the study's results.
Yes but they're exceptions to the rule, it seems. Hard to say without studies on the exceptions.
Im confused. What are those genes you speak of? Is there an actual gene that correlates to religiousness?
As far as I know, the studies themselves assume a situational disposition, not a genetic disposition.
It certainly isn't one gene but a probably collection of them that influence religiousness. There are no studies that have 'found the gene' in regards to religiosity, but there has certainly been a truckload of inductive research that can measure the impact of genetics on religiosity (and vice versa because environment and genes play into each other). This article discusses the genetic impact the Catholic Church had on Western Civilization: The Catholic Church and Western Genetics | Ideas and Data (wordpress.com) . It also mentions Eastern Church and Islamic faith, too.
So this "situational disposition", over time, becomes a "genetic disposition" because the environment (which is influenced by religion) starts selecting for people who have more 'religious genes', and thus more religious genes are created.
For the record, I don't intend to disagree with how we're genetically built. What I want to know is where mathematicians or whatever you call them include extremely complicated phenomena like infatuation, altruism and trauma. Are they coded in our genes? Or are we built to have some sort of psychological resilience in which flexibility in attraction,friendship is encouraged?
So these are all built-in to the conclusion of 'similar people are more likely to like each other'. There is probably going to be flexibility, but there is clearly a rule to this (even if we don't know every specific, such as the weight 'trauma' has on this. Anyway, I'll address the individual points.
I addressed infatuation earlier.
With altruism, similarity allows the typical bias towards kin to be extended into larger groups, due to the larger group becoming more genetically similar to the individual. Evolutionarily speaking, people who would sacrifice themselves for people who have similar genes to them, allow those similar genes to be passed on (these people are like 4th cousins), and so altruism allows you to quasi-breed without actually breeding (hence why it was selected for).
As for trauma, I don't know a lot about it, so I can't comment.
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@3RU7AL
When you say "racial differences" are you talking about "skin-tone differences" ?...OR someone might simply point out that while there may be some INCIDENTAL correlations between "skin-tone" and other human characteristics, "skin-tone" itself is not the most efficient indicator of individual fitness for any specific task.
That's part of it, but racial differences go well below the skin. I mean that different humans races are phenotypically different. Again: race =/= just "skin-tone".
It is impossible to discuss "I.Q." without mentioning the efficacy of the specific "I.Q." test used to make your hasty generalization.
Stating the truth about racial I.Q. differences is efficacious :)
Also, the generalization wasn't hasty. I've spent many hours exploring the topic of racial I.Qs.
For example, a native of Papua New Guinea might not score well on your SAT, but inversely, YOU probably wouldn't score well on their "hunting and survival" test.
So how is that not efficacious?
Black and Hispanic or Latino students routinely score lower on the math section of the SAT — a likely result of generations of exclusionary housing, education, and economic policy — which too often means that, rather than reducing existing race gaps, using the test in college admissions reinforces them. [**]Wealth doesn’t just impact SAT scores. According to a recent report from the Georgetown Center on Education and the Workforce, “Born to Win, Schooled to Lose,” being born wealthy is actually a better indicator of adult success in the U.S. than academic performance. “To succeed in America, it’s better to be born rich than smart,” [**]
So there's a 'genetic mesh' effect at play here, wherein genetics creates environments, which then makes the genetics better/worse over time etc. What happens is that African Americans and Hispanics are, on average, lower in the I.Q. department. This makes it more likely that they will do poorly at school. They then get worse jobs, on average. They then have kids who are born into lower SES than higher I.Q counterparts (on average). The cycle then repeats. There are other confounding variables (such as self-control, learning disabilities), but macrosocietally, the I.Q difference has an impact over time.
This in part explains the wealthy aspect, although we know that I.Q. and wealth have a rather weak correlation (0.22-0.28, depending on the study), so there certainly other factors involved in that. In life, there is certainly an element of luck in becoming wealthy. Racial bias will have an impact, but I don't see how we can determine how large.
However, we know that simply dropping poorly performing students into top-end schools doesn't at all change their poor school performance: School Quality as a Cause of Racial IQ Gaps – The Alternative Hypothesis . Clearly, there is a genetic component (I.Q. being a large part, but not the whole), when it comes to school performance.
As for exclusionary housing and economic policy, the article doesn't source or back the claim, and I don't know these topics, so I can't comment.
BUT LET'S GRANT YOUR PREMISE. ARE YOU SUGGESTING WE SHOULD PRIMARILY SELECT JEWISH ASIANS FOR POSITIONS OF AUTHORITY ?
No.
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@Theweakeredge
False. Often individuals of the same race are more varied genetically than between races
Yeah so what you're essentially arguing is the classic 'more variation within than between'. It's a shame you haven't listened to the other side because this argument has been addressed plenty of times by race realists, and isn't even nearly the best to argue against them. Still, it's a good argument until you hear and understand the debunking.
The argument originates from Lewontin's 1972 paper Lewontin-The-Apportionment-of-Human-Diversity.pdf (philbio.org) .
Firstly, what Lewontin says is literally true, but not technically true. There is more variation within than between human sub-species (races), but the same could be said for many other animals that actually *have* sub-species. Human fst value was said by Lewontin to be 6.3% (recent studies show 12%), but even if we give this 6.3%, animals with far less (e.g. Red Winged Black Bird: 1%) are considered to have sub-species 1-1.jpg (547×308) (thealternativehypothesis.org) .
So, if humans have a sufficient fst value to have sub-species (when compared with other animals), why did Lewontin make this argument? Lewontin said that 0.063 fst was "too low for races to be real" (never saying what would be high enough), and that racially classifying people was "mean and bigoted".
Lol.
So humans *are* genetically diverse to generate sub-species, but how is this done, and does this match human 'races?' As long as you use enough loci/SNP (roughly 100, but more is always better), you consistently receive consistent sub-species (race) classification for humans, even if you only have broad categories such as 'Asians', 'Africans' and 'Europeans': Human Population Genetic Structure and Inference of Group Membership (nih.gov) .
That's an abridged version of the race realist counter-argument, but hopefully you get the gist.
black people on the whole are the most genetically diverse group of people.
Depends on how you define 'black'. If you mean Africans, Australian Aboriginies, Pacific Islanders etc. then yes. If you mean just Africans, then maybe not. That's why I haven't said "black people", but instead "African Americans" throughout the OP.
Any commonalities would therefore be a result of environmental conditions, if you were to say, begin selectively breeding humans then that environment would change drastically.
So what role do genetics play?
Ultimately, this would mean any studies or experiments conducted pre-natural selection to determine the strengths and weaknesses of races would not hold any water post, as any statistically major differences would likely be null and void.
Let me get this straight: you believe that the environment is 100% responsible for human differences?
In fact, when it comes to humanity, natural selection would be very difficult to pull of at all. First of all - as Ragnar pointed out - any list of traits are going to be subjective to whatever you come up with,
Ragnar got blown-out by that line of argument so hard that he dropped it completely.
But seriously, do you think being taller, prettier, stronger etc. isn't objectively better than the inverse, overall? Do you people really think that?
even if your list is objective with a certain goal in mind - that goal is ultimately subjective.
So how is evolution's goals subjective? You don't think people agree on what more attractive people look like?
Second, doing such a thing to human beings is begging to be fought back against, revolutions have been fought against for less buddy.
So because some humans are, according to humans, better than others, you want a revolution.
Wow.
Finally, my point, most studies conducted in such an environment as the human one, abound with variables that one can simple not account for most of them when determining groups specialities, that it would most likely result in very slow, if any, results.
And yet you didn't list a single study.
So, yeah, no. That statement you so boldly proclaim is not correct. Please think through your positions more clearly. Your conclusion is reliant on assumptions and a lack of nuance in mind, more simply put, bullshit.
Relax lol.
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@Barney
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@rbelivb
In some of these examples I have ignored where you have misunderstood my words or simply said the opposite of what I said without much argument.
No.
You re-addressed the important points you dropped because I pointed out how crushing they were. You would have hemorrhaged points, if this were a debate. Also, the fact that you did re-address the points I made proves that you actually believe there were worth responding to, hence what you've said about these particular points you dropped shouldn't apply.
However, unlike Ragnar, at least you addressed the important points, and hence we continue the conversation.
Intelligence itself is not a behavior, but it determines behavior. Sweating is literally surface-level and has no implications for behavior.
Firstly, I 100% agree with your comment on intelligence.
Secondly, it's super clear that I'm using a definition for behavior that differs from yours -- this is the crux of our disagreement on this point. I'm saying that I can use behavior to describe sweating because it's behavior, in a loose sense (sweating is an action). You argue that technically, behavior has a stricter definition. Unfortunately, Wikipedia doesn't define 'behavioral trait' and so I inferred that I could use this looser definition. About from you Reference.com citation, I couldn't find anything that states 'behavioral trait' is jargon with a strict meaning. **If** you could demonstrate to me that 'behavioral trait' is jargon, then I will concede this.
Then I would challenge you to provide the absolute criteria of the terms "hatred" and "racial hatred" .
Hatred based on racial animus.
This is a false dichotomy: either I make broad sweeping judgments about the comparative intelligence of different races, or I believe that all races have an exactly identical average IQ score.
You didn't provide at least a third option to render this dichotomy false, hence it remains a valid dichotomy.
Then I don't understand why this argument would be important, unless it is being used to argue against things like affirmative action.
So for context, this is what I said to you: "Quote where I said or implied this or admit you're strawmanning."
The fact that you failed to provide any quotes proves that you have strawmanned me, intentionally or otherwise.
The first sentence of the wikipedia article on hatred uses the relative word "very" in the definition:"Hatred is a very angry emotional response to certain people or ideas."It would be up to interpretation whether someone is "very angry" at someone because of their race. ...
I don't know why you'd expect me to agree with another Wikipedia definition when I'm arguing one is nonsense.
You're right, "very" is up to interpretation.
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@Barney
Apply that logic to your own case.
Yeah, accuse other people what you're being accused of. Straight out of a politician's handbook.
While engaging in wall of text syndrome,
You're arguing that because something is long, it's a "syndrome".
Why are you Ad Homming my text?
Please stop bullying my text or I'll tell a teacher.
you've failed to actually respond the criticism of your flawed grasp of the English language with anything more than non sequiturs.
Your "criticism" involved saying, "You're confusing the term nonsense with Mesmer dislikes." I responded by showing how it wasn't that: Racism is a nonsense, malicious term (debateart.com) . You merely restated your, "In short: You're confusing the term nonsense with Mesmer dislikes," this time bolding the text (thanks for that) Racism is a nonsense, malicious term (debateart.com) .
You haven't demonstrated how my arguments are non sequiturs, you've only stated that they are. Restating your conclusion doesn't prove you right lol.
You also **completely** dropped your arguments about things being subjective, despite initially arguing them (thereby showing that at least this section wasn't a non sequitur, due to your ability to engage with the argument's content, thereby partially contradicting your implied claim that all my arguments are non sequiturs). Just so the audience understands, I'm referring to the two bottom arguments I quoted here (the third he just simply ignored, which I pointed out): Racism is a nonsense, malicious term (debateart.com) .
You're of course welcome to challenge me to a debate on if the term racism has no meaning and/or conveys no intelligible ideas (AKA, the definition of senseless).
Why would I want to spend hours constructing an opening case, only for you to respond 'it's a non sequitur, ''wall of text' or restating your conclusion over and over?
Until you can engage in the response I gave you, the conversation is over.
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(1) IQ has the capacity to (decently) predict a lot of life outcomes.
From "The Scientific American Book of the Brain", there is a researched table (on page 65) that shows the percentage of undesirable life outcomes occurring, relative to the IQ of the person: WwSHDHN.png (602×140) (imgur.com) . There isn't any instance of undesirable life outcomes percentage chance increasing as IQ increases, whilst a decrease in IQ always lead to an inflated chance of undesirable life outcomes.
IQ is able to predict job performance to some degree. Schmidt and Hunter (1990) examined the correlation between job performance and IQ Individual Differences in Output Variability as a Function of Job Complexity (gwern.net) . Methodologically speaking, they used coworker's assessments of work and tested it against metrics (such as IQ) to see correlation. IQ was the 2nd best metric, tying for second with a "Structured Interview", and beaten only by "Work Sample Tests" VA8gjB7.png (284×250) (imgur.com) . IQ beat things like "Job Experience," "Job Tryout," and even "Years of Education".
Schmidt and Hunter (1984) also did a review of job performance studies, which was assessed by Huffcutt and Arthur (1994) Huffcutt & Arthur (1994) Interview.pdf (radford.edu) . In this review, IQ was the best predictor of job performance across all the metrics measured: kssZoa7.png (411×232) (imgur.com) (there was only an interview, not a "Structured Interview", and there was no "Work Samples Test" this time).
Strenze (2006) performed a meta-analysis of longitudinal studies (average group size being 97,083) that compared various life factors (e.g. IQ, Grades, SES index etc.) with education, occupation and income levels doi:10.1016/j.intell.2006.09.004 (emilkirkegaard.dk) . With education, occupation and income levels, IQ consistently produced the best correlation qIGdGqI.png (378×564) (imgur.com) .
Clearly, IQ measures something that is valid, otherwise these decent correlations wouldn't be produced.
(2) "Intelligence" is probably measured by IQ (to some degree)
Heuristically, people can guess the intelligence of something. We certainly shouldn't measure IQ based on how smart people think something is, but this heuristic guess correlates very well with IQ. Denissen et al. 2011 provides the data to make this case: Antecedents and consequences of peer‐rated intelligence - Denissen - 2011 - European Journal of Personality - Wiley Online Library (sorry for paywall).
A limitation to this correlation was found in Morgan 1997, wherein they showed that the amount someone talked in the short-run (in a group discussion), actually inflated their perceived level of intelligence. However, if people in the group were allowed to speak for long enough, this effect subsided, and people's guess of people's IQ correlated very well with that of the actual IQ test results (PDF) Perceptions of Intelligence in Leaderless Groups: The Dynamic Effects of Shyness and Acquaintance (researchgate.net) .
===================================================================================================================================
So, IQ (1) measures something valid (better than most other things), and (2) that valid thing it measures is probably intelligence.
Credit to Ryan Faulk as most of this argument is his arguments reworded.
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Ragnar hasn't addressed any of the counter-argument I provided here: Racism is a nonsense, malicious term (debateart.com) .
Instead, he has restated his conclusion.
This is functionally a concession, of which I accept.
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@rbelivb
And the fact that you seem to think this self-evidently indicates some kind of hypocrisy is surprising. Anti-racists do not need to argue that all people of all races are identical in every respect. But they do argue that the claims of racists - that races differ in ways that are significant enough make broad claims about their comparative merit,
Again, since you didn't get it the first 4 times: "according to your words, intelligence isn't a "behavioral trait", it exists as an "automatic biological process". Again, in your words, the differences in racial ability to sweat cannot be judged as "racist" because it's an "automatic biological process", and your same logic applies to intelligence because that is also an "automatic biological process". Yet when I mention that races have differing levels of intelligence, you have labelled that as "racist", despite it contradicting your definitional framework."
The only surprising thing is you missing this argument the first 4 times.
Anyway, if you want to argue that the data/arguments for race realism are wrong, then that's an intelligible debate (and they could be wrong). If race realists present data/arguments, and you dismiss them on the spot by calling them "racist" and failing to actually address the data/arguments, that's nonsense.
and that this means their roles in society should naturally be different - are unfounded.
Quote where I said or implied this or admit you're strawmanning.
It appears you have a penchant for engaging strawmans, considering that you already (incorrectly) called me a conservative: Racism is a nonsense, malicious term (debateart.com)
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@3RU7AL
"Anti-racists do not need to argue that all people of all races are identical in every respect." -- rbelivb
He's technically not wrong in saying this, but it's a strawman of the opposition's argument.
Everyone agrees that racial differences in sweating capacity is acceptable. That's why I chose that example for the OP: race realists, progressives, liberals etc. can all agree with this. So, people can agree that racial differences can exist.
The problem arises when I.Q. is mentioned. This is where "anti-racists" typically (not always) put their blinders on and dismiss **any** data or argument as being "racist", without examining it (or understanding it). One of the points of this thread is get to people away from nonsense definitions like "racist", and move people into determining whether race realism is right or not. So, anti-racists actually need to argue that, overall, all races are identical in intelligence (instead of saying "racist" and calling it a day) -- that's the contention that needs to be addressed, not the strawman he created above.
Just to clarify the race realist position, we're talking about the average of the race's I.Qs, not the individual's I.Q. It's entirely possible to have an African American with 120 I.Q who is smarter than a White, Asian or Jew, whilst have the average of the entire African American population be 85 I.Q. which is below the average of White, Asian and Jewish I.Q.
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@rbelivb
Once again, for the third time, you've failed to address every point I've made, some of which already respond to the points you make here. One that isn't addressed at all in your response is this one:
Your words: Your argument seems to be that since the first sentence of the wikipedia article on racism cannot support a strict, all-encompassing division between what is or is not racist, therefore the entire concept is illegible. Even granting that we found some case of a behavior differing between races which was not considered racist, this still would not mean the entire concept of racism was senseless.
My words: "So what you're saying is that despite the definition sometimes not describing accurately the thing it's meant to describe, it still makes sense. So if I were to say that, "I have two dogs," and you looked at my animals and saw that one was a dog and one was an owl, does my definition of "dog" make sense?
Why not have a definition that **does** represent what it is describing? Here, I can make one for you: racial hatred. What is a term to describe someone who wants to bash Asians because they are Asians? Racial hatred. What is a term to describe Black South Africans wanting to necklace White South Africans due to the color of their skin? Racial hatred."
This is extremely important to address because it vindicates the OP -- it shows that "racism" is a nonsense term (and also that there are better terms we could easily use).
I didn't say that, I said that it determines behavior. Therefore if you believe one group is more intelligent, then that implies that you believe "that groups of humans possess different behavioral traits corresponding to physical appearance".
You didn't *literally* say that, but it's a necessary implication of your argument because, according to your words, intelligence isn't a "behavioral trait", it exists as an "automatic biological process". Again, in your words, the differences in racial ability to sweat cannot be judged as "racist" because it's an "automatic biological process", and your same logic applies to intelligence because that is also an "automatic biological process". Yet when I mention that races have differing levels of intelligence, you have labelled that as "racist", despite it contradicting your definitional framework.
Therefore, even if I were to accept your definitions (I still don't), you cannot avoid this contradiction.
For the rest of it you are contradicting my statements about definitions.
Your statements **are** contradictory (as, again, is illustrated above). Me stating the contradictions doesn't make them contradictions LOL.
My point is that for any definition you give, especially for broad subjects like politics or psychology, I could give an example which seems to fit the term but doesn't fit your given definition, or vice versa. It is impossible to provide a completely airtight definition for terms like racism. Ethics and moral philosophy have the same problem, but we do not say that all ethical distinctions are meaningless for this reason.
You haven't demonstrated this at all, and the leniency issue that comes with being this generous about definitions is addressed in this section which you failed to address:
"Anyway, the whole point of a definition is to define what is and what is not part of the word. Saying that "nobody is required to provide an absolute criteria" contradicts what a definition should be. The definition should be able to clearly demarcate wherein something is and is not the term, in every situation. Funnily enough, when we accept your notion of, "we require only to distinguish appropriate from inappropriate uses of the term commonly enough", we get pants-on-head special-ed definitions that end up being whatever people feel like. That's how we get arguments saying that 'you can't be racist to White people'. you can't be racist to white people - Bing images ."
The null hypothesis in psychology states that different groups should be assumed not to vary unless sufficient concrete evidence exists to prove otherwise. Therefore it is not my question to answer, instead if some racist wants to argue that case, they would have the burden of proof in doing so.
Yeah nice try, but you've already answered the question through the implication of your own words: "I would say that making sweeping judgments about the comparative intelligence of different races qualifies as racist." You **already** believe that people of all races, despite evolving in different environments, despite having different brain sizes and skull shapes, have EXACTLY the same level of intelligence.
Yet another contradiction you've made.
Now, we're going to watch you respond to only half of what I wrote (again).
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@rbelivb
I'm not sure if you're partially blind or intentionally not responding to all of what I said (this is the second time you've done this). My very latter point needed to be responded to because it demonstrates how your argument contradicts itself **even if we agree* with your definition of "behavioral traits".
You said: If you claim that one race is more intelligent than another, then it is reasonable to infer that you believe that those races "possess different behavioral traits corresponding to physical appearance" and that they "can be divided based on the superiority of one race over another".
I responded with: Again, your definition of behavioral trait contradicts claiming intelligence as a behavioral trait, in that you have argued that behavioral traits cannot be an "automatic biological process", whereas the existence of intelligence is an "automatic biological process". Therefore, using your definition of "behavioral trait" (which I only granted to you for a hypothetical), we CAN judge people's intelligence in a discriminatory way WITHOUT acting in a "racist" (according to Wikipedia) way BECAUSE intelligence is, in your words: an "automatic biological process".
Even if you were to prove me wrong on the definition, you **cannot* be right due to this internal contradiction. This is a fatal concession to make for your argument.
Anyway, let's see if I can uphold my interpretation of the definition.
Your argument seems to be that since the first sentence of the wikipedia article on racism cannot support a strict, all-encompassing division between what is or is not racist, therefore the entire concept is illegible. Even granting that we found some case of a behavior differing between races which was not considered racist, this still would not mean the entire concept of racism was senseless.
So what you're saying is that despite the definition sometimes not describing accurately the thing it's meant to describe, it still makes sense. So if I were to say that, "I have two dogs," and you looked at my animals and saw that one was a dog and one was an owl, does my definition of "dog" make sense?
Why not have a definition that **does** represent what it is describing? Here, I can make one for you: racial hatred. What is a term to describe someone who wants to bash Asians because they are Asians? Racial hatred. What is a term to describe Black South Africans wanting to necklace White South Africans due to the color of their skin? Racial hatred.
That is simply not how definitions work - no word has such a strict definition, especially in softer sciences like psychology or sociology.
So now you're the authority on all definitions. You going to quote the world renowned reference.com again? Just make sure it agrees with you this time.
The same wikipedia article verifies this, since it does not offer the first sentence as an all-encompassing definition, but continues:"It may also mean prejudice, discrimination, or antagonism directed against other people because they are of a different race or ethnicity.[2][3] Modern variants of racism are often based in social perceptions of biological differences between peoples. These views can take the form of social actions, practices or beliefs, or political systems in which different races are ranked as inherently superior or inferior to each other, based on presumed shared inheritable traits, abilities, or qualities."
I specifically addressed the other definition due to its nonsensical usage of the term "behavioral traits".
This "may also mean" definition is also nonsense, but is far trickier to address because it's folly lies in the liberal, inaccurate application of "prejudice, discrimination or antagonism", wherein these terms allow benign, normal human behavior to turn into heinous "racist" crimes against usually colored people. It's a lot of inductive work to show that this is probably true. For example, the assembling of White groups is regarded by colored anti-racists as 'racist' due to the exclusion of colored people. Brooklyn school cutting gifted program to boost diversity - New York Daily News (nydailynews.com) New LAFD recruit class is nearly all male, overwhelmingly white - Los Angeles Times (latimes.com)
Frankly, I didn't address this part in my OP I wanted to destroy the other nonsense definition in short order.
So I think these debates about the scope of the definition are somewhat beside the point anyway. In order to use the word racism, nobody is required to provide an absolute criteria by which in every situation we can say what is or is not racist. Instead, we require only to distinguish appropriate from inappropriate uses of the term commonly enough to make practical use of it.
No.
I've dismantled the "behavioral traits" part of the definition. I've reduced you to the point wherein you're (probably) outright ignoring criticism of your interpretation of the definition of "behavioral traits". We're not "besides the point" on that.
Anyway, the whole point of a definition is to define what is and what is not part of the word. Saying that "nobody is required to provide an absolute criteria" contradicts what a definition should be. The definition should be able to clearly demarcate wherein something is and is not the term, in every situation. Funnily enough, when we accept your notion of, "we require only to distinguish appropriate from inappropriate uses of the term commonly enough", we get pants-on-head special-ed definitions that end up being whatever people feel like. That's how we get arguments saying that 'you can't be racist to White people'. you can't be racist to white people - Bing images .
I think this debate would be more productive if conservatives could get away from this attempt at refuting the idea that "all people are exactly identical in all respects" - which nobody has ever said, and is a ridiculous strawman even to bring up, but the falsehood of which conservatives seem addicted to reminding us all. Instead, it is more useful to see racism as involving those differences being relatively significant, especially when relating to that person's virtue or value to society. Racism also has the connotation of a personal prejudice toward a group on the basis of race.
I'm not conservative.
The fact is that you're fine agreeing that different races sweat different amounts, but as soon as I suggest that races have different intelligence levels, it's "racist". You're the one saying that all races are identical when it comes to intelligence, and then saying that "nobody" believes that the races are "exactly identical in all respects".
Did evolution only apply to people from the neck down, and somehow, people of all races, despite evolving in different environments, despite having different brain sizes and skull shapes, have EXACTLY the same level of intelligence?
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@rbelivb
Firstly, you missed responding to several of my points, all of which are reasons why your interpretation of "behavioral traits" is flawed:
(1) "Behavioral trait" isn't a generically accepted term. Your definitions are a way to interpret the term "behavioral", but there isn't a universally accepted definition.
(2) What is to say that laughing isn't an automatic biological process, in response to something funny? Is it not true that sometimes people cannot help but laugh, even when they shouldn't? I don't think you've drawn a clear-enough line between the two. Perhaps this highlights Wikipedia's poor usage of the term, in that "behavioral trait" is not concretely defined, hence this conversation.
(3) You've now asserted a distinction between "instinctive action" and "automatic biological process", but the website you reference says, "In humans, behavioral traits are often learned rather than instinctive." Again, even the website you quote doesn't agree with you, because it believes instinct can play part in the "automatic biological process" **sometimes**, whereas you believe it **never** has a place in the "automatic biological process". In other words, the website you quoted has an opinion on the definition that contradicts yours.
I'll assume you conceded them.
You have entirely missed my point. You are attempting a reductio of wikipedia's definition of racism by using a fringe application of the term "behavioral trait".Black people have darker skin - is this a behavior? Would that be a reasonable reductio?
It's funny that you describe my application of the term as "fringe", when I established in my previous post to you that: (1) there isn't a universally accepted definition, (2) the term isn't defined by Wikipedia itself, and (3) your own citation didn't agree with your definition. It's also funny that you ignored all three of these points in your response to me.
I'll rephrase my argument in clear English so you might get it this time: the definition of "behavioral traits" is up for debate, due to no universal definition.
Skin is a noun, whilst sweating is a verb. Unless you can think of a way to "darker skin", that's not reasonable.
Yes, intelligence is not a behavior, but it is a capacity which determines behavior.
We agree on this.
If you claim that one race is more intelligent than another, then it is reasonable to infer that you believe that those races "possess different behavioral traits corresponding to physical appearance" and that they "can be divided based on the superiority of one race over another".
Again, your definition of behavioral trait contradicts claiming intelligence as a behavioral trait, in that you have argued that behavioral traits cannot be an "automatic biological process", whereas the existence of intelligence is an "automatic biological process". Therefore, using your definition of "behavioral trait" (which I only granted to you for a hypothetical), we CAN judge people's intelligence in a discriminatory way WITHOUT acting in a "racist" (according to Wikipedia) way BECAUSE intelligence is, in your words: an "automatic biological process".
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@drlebronski
(1) that it is a outdated framework (and why that would matter)the creator the the IQ testliterallydoesnt value the IQ test
This isn't doesn't determine the validity of I.Q, as the validity rests within an examination of I.Q itself.
So, you haven't argued as to why I.Q is outdated, you've only presented what someone thinks of it.
This posting style is a waste of people's time. If you think this paper disproves what I said, then you need to provide the argument. The fact that you haven't suggests you don't understand what you posted, haven't read what you posted (especially since you posted only the abstract, when the PDF version of the full-text was a click away), or you're too lazy to make good arguments.
Do better.
(3) there is no empirical standard for intelligence
What do you mean by "empirical standard" for intelligence?
(3) there never has been onethere never will be one
So you can predict all of the future?
(3) animals are seen to be incredibly unintelligent compared to humans but that is due to certain applications of frameworks
They're seen that way due to behavior. I agree that this alone wouldn't be a great metric to judge intelligence by, but when we have standardized tests that have a large amount of objectivity, we don't need to rely on mere observations.
There's an entire Wikipedia page on 'Animal Cognition' and the ways animal intelligence has been tested Animal cognition - Wikipedia
There's abundant data on standardized intelligence tests that animal have undergone (I'll post one due to my time constraints) Animal IQ Ranking - Bing images
Have you never looked at any of these?
(3) those of which being incomplete
Why are they incomplete?
(3) you cant exactly put faith in a framework thats trying to measure something with no many causes, factors, processes,especially without the understanding of intelligence or medical/scientific approaches of sophisticated value that we just dont have
Can you prove that humans don't have an "understanding of intelligence or medical/scientific approaches of sophisticated value" required to determine the I.Qs of people/animals?
one person can consider foraging in early anprim societiesto be insanely intelligent
Would not a standardized I.Q. test be better to objectively (as much as humanly possible) the intelligence of said creature? Why should this whimsical opinion be preferred?
compared to how humans now even with technology and rapid scientific testing/scientific methodstill believe anti-vax for example
So the fact that some people are anti-vaxers means that we can't use I.Q. tests.
Got it.
FYI the scientific method hasn't changed.
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@rbelivb
An instinctive action is not the same as an automatic biological process
There are many problems with your argument:
(1) "Behavioral trait" isn't a generically accepted term. Your definitions are a way to interpret the term "behavioral", but there isn't a universally accepted definition.
(2) What is to say that laughing isn't an automatic biological process, in response to something funny? Is it not true that sometimes people cannot help but laugh, even when they shouldn't? I don't think you've drawn a clear-enough line between the two. Perhaps this highlights Wikipedia's poor usage of the term, in that "behavioral trait" is not concretely defined, hence this conversation.
(3) You've now asserted a distinction between "instinctive action" and "automatic biological process", but the website you reference says, "In humans, behavioral traits are often learned rather than instinctive." Again, even the website you quote doesn't agree with you, because it believes instinct can play part in the "automatic biological process" **sometimes**, whereas you believe it **never** has a place in the "automatic biological process". In other words, the website you quoted has an opinion on the definition that contradicts yours.
(4) Furthermore, if I were to hypothetically grant you this distinction (i.e. accept your definition of "behavioral traits", if I am to argue that African Americans have lower intelligence than Whites, then people shouldn't be able to label that as "racist" (according to Wikipedia's definition), with your distinction in mind. The reason being is that the existence of intelligence is "an automatic biological process", not an "instinctive action".
It is not controversial that the skin of different races has different biological traits.
As it shouldn't be.
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