The mistake here is that I said Hypothetically we could assume our perception is an illusion,
Hypotheticals necessarily incorporate an assumption. Hence, my statement. If you glance again at that which had followed my statement, you'll see that it applies. Why would one entertain irrationality even as a hypothetical?
Again, my point is not that the universe does not exist, but that we cannot know the universe exists how we see it.
And this reflexively proposes that there's a universe outside of how we see it. Posits of that which lies independent of perception (independence being a prerequisite for existing outside or beyond) are irrational and epistemologically irrelevant. In order to establish independence, we'd have to control for that which is devoid of our minds' use and influence. That would be logically absurd.
I don't believe that things beyond perception are irrational,
They are.
but that believing in things with no evidence supporting them is illogical.
Belief may be subject to reason, but not necessarily bound by the rules of logic.
However, acknowledging that something that has no evidence to support it may still exist is not illogical or irrational. To say that nothing exists that we don't have evidence to believe is both illogical and irrational.
Correct, otherwise one risks imputing an argumentum ad ignorantiam (argument from ignorance.)
My case is that it is possible that our perception of the universe is an illusion and therefore it is accurate to say, "one can only know one's own mind to exist."
If you're entertaining the possibility, then how can one propose that the perception of our universe is an illusion and state one can only know one's own mind to exist? Isn't the description, "illusion," being used comparatively?
Illogical means that something lacks logical consistency and does not follow the rules bound by logic.
Irrational typically means lacking rationality which consists of clear levelheaded thought that is not emotional or impulsive.
I appreciate the submission of your descriptions. I would like to add that "irrational" can also be described as that which is incapable of being rationalized, or that which is absent/devoid of reason.
I agree with the first part of the sentence but not the second.
The second is a necessary consequence of the first.
As seen here you have used irrationality as an idea to be examined, but no one examines irrationality nor is irrationality a thing that examines; this is because it is an emotional impulse. Therefore, it was not correctly used here, but I have a good idea of what you intended to convey. I will show the presumed sentence below.
I'm not using "irrationality" in the context of emotional impulse given that the connotative application of this term does not apply to our discussion.
I am not saying I believe that the universe is entirely an illusion nor do I. What I'm attempting to say clearly is that it's possible; therefore, we cannot know with certainty that what we see is what really exists.
This is the concern I brought up earlier. When you describe it as an "illusion," you're suggesting a comparative error--i.e. what we see, and what (allegedly) "really" is. Now, if what we see is an "illusion" because our perception is essentially subject to the bias of our minds, then how does any assessment or measure of that which one alleges "really exists" less immune, for lack of a better term, to the bias of our minds?
I believe what you're saying here is that in the quote, "one can only know one's own mind exists," you interpret mind as something that is mental or spiritual
I don't restrict the mind to just the the mental and/or spiritual. As I stated earlier, it's all indistinguishable--i.e. mental, spiritual, physical, etc.
I interpret the mind as the thing thinks (the consciousness of you), which includes whichever aspects are necessary in whatever universe the mind exists.
Are you proposing that you and your mind exist in two separate universes?
"The statement that there are certain things or concepts that are beyond the scope of proof because they exist independently of our minds and are not within the realm of reason. It implies that some aspects of reality or existence may be beyond the reach of rational understanding or logical proof."
No. I would never posit that anything exists independently of our minds because I maintain that nothing exists independently of our minds. I'm actually arguing quite the opposite:
there are certain things or concepts that are [independent] of proof [but nothing can] exist independently of our minds [because it is] not within the realm of reason. It implies that [no aspect] of reality or existence may be beyond the reach of rational understanding or logical proof."
I disagree, I believe that you could not know if the universe goes beyond our minds or if it is to the extent of our minds.
How?
This is the point; we can only know that our mind exists and what is within the mind while everything external is merely a projection of what we believe.
How have you rationalized that which is external?
I think it quite plausible (not with certainty of one way or the other, rather valid potential). You only believe what you know because you have perceived it and you only think you think what you know because you think it; this is not because of external factors or a result of an objective reality but it is entirely built upon how you have perceived it or think that you have perceived it. It is logically valid to then claim potential that the external reality which we believe to exist is merely our perception's own creation and that it's possible the universe is to the extent of one's own mind.
Bingo! Well stated!
You claim here that perception is subjective, and objectivity is irrational. I agree that perception is subjective, but I disagree objectivity is irrational.
Objectivity is irrational because there's no ontological experience, observation, determination, examination without a subject. It's important to note that CONSENSUS =/= OBJECTIVITY. Neither does "peer review."
You know when you are correct in understanding when you can consistently predict outcomes and inevitability of certain situations. The more consistently you can predict events and understand certain situations the more you know that you have an accurate understanding.
Accuracy is a description you've given to a desired end, not necessarily an indicator of "truth," much less one which exists independent of your capacity to understand and rationalize it. But that doesn't equate "consistency" to "objectivity." Because through all your experience of consistency, you've never stopped being the subject.
I also recognize that from a darwinian perspective everything has a certain obligation towards itself a sort of bias.
Explain.
To me these seem like valid contributions to my basis for presuming that people's perception is biased and not consistent.
CONSENSUS =/= OBJECTIVITY.