Experience and Testimony is Evidence, Reid's Principle of Credulity applied to god(s) existence

Author: TheMorningsStar

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Amoranemix
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@Polytheist-Witch
@TheMorningsStar
People who prefer to believe some fantasy over reality often try to sell their fantasy as reality. For that they  deceive. So, yes, I find clarity about what is being said important.
I'm so sick and tired of every bigot atheist basically saying every theist is out to deceive every single other person on the planet. It is complete b******* and an utter lie. I do not witness because my religion does not call for it and I don't think any of the gods need me to. But if someone asked me questions and I tell them answers to those questions it does not mean I'm trying to deceive them. I am telling them what I think feel and have experienced. If you feel you're being deceived that's you on your end and not mine. That's how you feel you shouldn't even be in this forum talking to any of us.
Please stay on topic.

I would argue that "good reason to doubt" would constitute counter-evidence, but I guess it is just how each phrase is interpreted by different people.
You are not arguing it. You are just using one term for both. I have given reason to make a distinction, but of course, I am arguing from a rational point of view, i.e. which approach is suitable for true beliefs, rather than desirable beliefs. Reality is not everyone's cup of tea.
Do you not know what "I would argue" means or are you just here to play word games? Because if it is the latter then this entire discussion is a waste of time.
I think the most common meaning is that one believes it to be true, but that it has not been demonstrated.
The purpose of naming conventions must be usefulness.
An additional concept that is useful is context. A claim should be evaluated based on evidence, context and background knowledge. Strictly speaking the latter two probably are part of the first category, so one could replace the first term with something like explicit evidence, i.e. evidence that does not belong in another category. Then we have :
A claim should be evaluated based on explicit evidence, context and background knowledge.

Try abstaining from selective quoting if you are genuine and not into time wasting.

[11] No, you haven't emphasized it. I haven't even noticed you say that because there could be evidence one is not aware of, a claim is tentatively true. You also have not supported it.
[12] So you claim, but can you prove that ?
[*] I am not arguing about how people acquire beliefs. I am arguing about how to proceed to acquire rationally justifiable beliefs. I agree that some people ignore the evidence that they could missing because it would undermine their ability to hold a particular belief they desire.
For clarity, I did not say that a good reason to doubt IS that there could be counter-evidence one doesn't know about. I used 'could be'.
I am confident you can think of examples where that is indeed the case.
I used the term tentatively three times in the OP in places that would make it clear what is being argued.

"It helps with establishing the position that one should tentatively hold to."
"If none can be provided then the logical conclusion is that we should tentatively hold to theism as true."
"Counter-evidence needs to be provided or else theism is rationally concluded as true (tentatively)."

That is just where the term was explicit. It really should not have been difficult for someone to see it but yet you somehow missed it?
I had responded to what you had said i.s.o. what you seemed to intend to say because the latter is a fallacy. Now you responded to what you presumed I said i.s.o. what I actually said.
So, let us try again :

I agree, but I emphasized that theism would be held tentatively for that very reason. If I am not aware of counter-evidence then I am justified in holding to a view of something and am rational in doing so. It isn't that "there is no counter-evidence anywhere", that isn't a premise in the argument (otherwise the conclusion wouldn't be to hold onto theism tentatively).
You are missing the point. Your argument failed to take into account the possibility of unknown counter-evidence. Reid’s principle may support a tentative conclusion in the absense of counter-evidence, but for that you would first have to establish there isn’t any.

[12] Because that is how it works. Are you denying it? Because, if so, welcome to solipsism. I can walk you through the steps on how that is reached, but it really shouldn't be necessary.
No, it doesn’t work that way. I shall tell you how it works. Claims are evaluated based on context, background knowledge, and explicit evidence. If you throw these three on the heap ‘evidence’, then there is always evidence, for no claims are made in a void. Now what you would want is that ‘evidence’ can easily be broken up in separate pieces of evidence that can then be easily categorized in ‘evidence for’ and ‘evidence against’. However, in reality on complicated topics ‘evidence’ is more often one big continuum that is difficult to devise in for or against. In that case with your simplistic view one wouldn’t be aware of any counter-evidence while a proper evaluation would conclude that trusting a claim is not rationally warranted.

[13] The problem is that the personal case is irrelevant. It are the claims of others that matter.
[14] No, that is not what C1 is about. C1 is : “If you claimed to have experienced X then, absent counter-evidence, you likely had a true experience of X.”
[15] So, in both P1 and P2 you mean there is a more than 70% chance. The problem is that you supported those premises under the assumption that 'tend to' means more than 50% chance. So you will need to amend that.
[16] If you think you can salvage the argument with multiple testimonies, then go ahead!
[17] You have yet to explain or demonstrate how they are tied together. In your argument you merely jumped from senses to experiences.
[18] It may be true for sight experiences, but C1 talks about experiences in general.
[c] That was intented to illustrate the point that followed, that which matters, that which you failed to quote and address, namely that your argument is invalid. No one as far as I know is claiming that P1 and P2 do not hold in general. You on the other hand claim they do hold in general, so the burden of proof is on you.
P3 and P3' are true in the sense that no justification for what either are about has been provided.
Assuming that what is true for you is true for everyone would be committing a hasty generalization fallacy.
[13] Sure, but so what? Having part of the argument be more personalized before moving to more general is not uncommon, the fact that you are emphasizing this point is weird.
[15] Tend to literally means more often than not. Absent any definitive numbers on how much it 'tends to' (which would take further arguments) we have to take an a priori position, and as I already showed, mathematically the average of all the 'tends to' is 75% (which is greater than 70%). So, the safe assumption is, based on the math, exactly what I was arguing. Unless you can justify that the 'tends to' should be based on a value between 50-70% then your objection is not all that great.
[17] I have no intention in going into detail on something like that when it is pointless to do so.[21] They are inherently tied together in such a way that these lines of objections constitute a pointless waste of time and the same exact line of reasoning, when applies consistently, will force you into solipsism. You are obviously not interested in an honest discussion, which is fine, but it means that there is no reason to continue the discussion with you.[22]
[13] You are not supposed to move on to the general case, but demonstrate it.
[15] Again, in your support of P1 and P2 you didn’t use 75%, but 50%, which apparently isn’t enough. The two parts of your proof must use the same value for a variable, not for one part an average and for another part the minimum. Also, that something tends to X does not imply that on average it has a 75% chance of being X.
[16] Agreed. It is unlikely mutliple testimonies would salvage your argument.
[21] The point would be to support your argument.
[22] I see you are already manoeuvering towards to the exit. Most people hold out longer.
The experiences in your argument are sense experiences. Not all experiences are sense experiences. For example, you mentioned God as an experience. However, one can’t see, smell or hear God. One can only see light, smell odor and hear sound. Transforming sense experiences into God requires processing, something you haven’t even mentioned. In fact, you haven’t even attempted to demonstrate a link between a god experience and sense experiences.
[18] You are arguing as if you haven’t even read the parts you failed to quote. If you want a constructive discussion, you should read my whole posts and not just the parts that inconvenience you least.
[c] Most skeptics aren’t irrational enough to buy Reid’s Principle of Credulity just because you ignore objections to it.

The reason to doubt needs to be good and good reason to doubt is not the same as counter-evidence.
I mean, this just goes into how we define counter-evidence, doesn't it?
Indeed. I distinguish evidence from background knowledge because I want to believe in reality.
You say that as if I don't want to believe in reality. There is no real merit in distinguishing background knowledge from evidence. Background knowledge can constitute a type of evidence.
To me, helping to distinguish fact from fiction is a real benefit.

People who prefer to believe some fantasy over reality often try to sell their fantasy as reality. For that they deceive.[*] So, yes, I find clarity about what is being said important.
Intent is ambiguous. If I guess that you intended to say A and assumme you did say A, then you can easily sabotage the discussion later by denying having said A.
In this case it does not seem important though, as you do not seem to rely on Reid's principle being evidence.
[*] Have to agree with Polytheist-Witch on this part of your comment.[23] This is absolutely uncharitable and is so egotistical [24] as well that it makes it clear that you are not open to honest discussions on theism.[25] This is the last comment I am making in response to you because even if you might make a good point or two, you clearly are not here for honest discourse and thus it is a waste of time to talk to you when I can spend such time on any number of other things.[26]
[23] Polytheist-Witch’s comments constituted a red herring.
[24] Characterizations without substantiation.
[25] This thread is not about theism. Read the OP to discover what it is about.
[26] If you want to reinforce your beliefs, you should discuss with people with similar beliefs. Present your argument on a Christian forum. They are more likely to tell you how great it is and as a bonus they will tell you how unreasonable atheists are.


FLRW
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Experience and testimony is evidence. Putin is a Christian. The Russian president's Orthodox faith is central to his worldview but he has used it to justify invasion and violence in God's name.
Polytheist-Witch
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@Amoranemix
I was on topic if you don't like being called out on your bigotry don't post it.

And neither the person you address there is a Christian dummy, reinforce your bigotry again.
secularmerlin
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@TheMorningsStar
The burden of proof is ALWAYS on the claimant.

People do not need to be dishonest to be incorrect.

Anecdotal evidence is weak evidence. 
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@secularmerlin
The burden of proof is ALWAYS on the claimant.
The burden of proof is always on the side with the least evidence. Sure, we might say that absent any evidence that the claimant has the BoP, but the moment only one side has provided evidence is the moment that that side has become the rational conclusion and thus the other side needs to make an argument if they wish to disagree.

It is like a balance scale, put weight on one side and the scales tilt.

What the argument in the OP outlines is that anecdotal evidence is sufficient enough to create that tilt and thus shift the BoP.

People do not need to be dishonest to be incorrect.
Don't disagree, don't see how that is necessarily relevant.

Anecdotal evidence is weak evidence. 
Weak evidence is still evidence, and if it is the only evidence then it can be sufficient enough to tilt the scales.
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@TheMorningsStar
The burden of proof is always on the side with the least evidence.
This is nonsensical if only one "side" is making a claim. I do not need to do anything to support  a nonclaim. I also do not need a reason to dismiss any claim whatsoever. I don't have to believe you in regards to claims about what you had for breakfast. 

Dismissal of a claim is bot coequal with a counterclaim.
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@secularmerlin
This is nonsensical if only one "side" is making a claim.
So, it is rational to not accept evolution even after being presented with the evidence (so long as you aren't yourself making a claim)? If this is your standard then you have a very different standard than basically every academic.
secularmerlin
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@TheMorningsStar
That depends entirely upon the evidence itself. No amount of insufficient evidence will EVER add up to sufficient evidence. 
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@secularmerlin
That depends entirely upon the evidence itself.
Can you elaborate? If the argument is that the evidence needs to be sound then it would still mean that once evidence is presented that it means that the other side now has a BoP, just that they can meet their BoP by tearing down the other side's evidence instead of presenting their own. If you mean something else then I would love to know what, precisely, that is.

No amount of insufficient evidence will EVER add up to sufficient evidence.
This absolutely needs elaboration.
Often times in court it is the body of evidence that creates a convincing case, even if no single piece of evidence is enough alone to lead to a conviction.
Are you saying that this is flawed or are you using a different understanding of 'insufficient' and 'sufficient' evidence?
FLRW
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@TheMorningsStar

I think what  secularmerlin is saying is that Anecdotal Evidence does not stand up to Direct Evidence.
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@FLRW
I think what  secularmerlin is saying is that Anecdotal Evidence does not stand up to Direct Evidence
Do you mean that verifiable evidence is better than testimonial evidence? If so, then I agree. I disagree that that would mean that claims would now necessarily require verifiable evidence, as that would essentially mean the entire field of history would have to be abandoned (plus that is usually the standard of logical positivists, and logical positivism has been abandoned for decades within academia).

If the argument isn't that we should only use verifiable evidence then I do not know what, precisely, the argument is at this point, because even if testimonial evidence isn't as good it is still evidence.
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@TheMorningsStar
Can you elaborate?
Certainly.

You could present me with any given peice of evidence and I will either be convinced by it or not. I cannot choose to be convinced when I am not and I cannot choose to be unconvinced when I am. 

If you present me with one hundred pieces of evidence and none are sufficient to convince me then I will have no choice but to remain unconvinced. 

I do not need to meet any burden of proof to remain unconvinced. 

If the options are A or B I don't need to choose B in order to he unconvinced that you are correct in thinking that the answer is A.
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@secularmerlin
You could present me with any given peice of evidence and I will either be convinced by it or not
I mean, ya, obviously.

I do not need to meet any burden of proof to remain unconvinced
I didn't say otherwise. You are making the mistake that one is always convinced of that which is rational though.

You can be unconvinced of something rational, you can be convinced by irrational argumentation as well. The Burden of Proof is a tool for rational discourse, and whether you are convinced by something or not does not determine where the Burden of Proof in a rational discourse lies.

Just like someone can be given the world's best education on evolution, constructed to be thorough and easily understandable and yet remain steadfast in their view that they have not been convinced that evolution is true. Does that mean that they are rational in their view? No. Does that mean that the BoP hasn't been met? Again, not at all.
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@TheMorningsStar
Let's say that I personally am equally unconvinced by arguments for a round earth and any supernatural beings. 

Please detail how you would convince me of each proposition and I will tell you if I am convinced. 


The above IS NOT coequal with the following 

I didn't say otherwise. You are making the mistake that one is always convinced of that which is rational though.
I have not claimed that all humans are equally rational or even that a given human is equally rational on regards to every subject. I have only said two things. 

1. I do not choose whether or not you have convincing evidence you either do or do not.

2. I do not need to meet any burden of proof to remain unconvinced by your claim.


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@Deb-8-a-bull
The appearance of magic is not magic. 
I would accept this as an axiom until some magic can be positively identified. 

I await the magimeter.
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@secularmerlin
Please detail how you would convince me of each proposition and I will tell you if I am convinced. 
1. I do not choose whether or not you have convincing evidence you either do or do not.
2. I do not need to meet any burden of proof to remain unconvinced by your claim.
Again, convincing is not the same thing as making a rational case. You can be convinced of whatever you want, what matters to me is what is rational and likely.
It seems that is the disconnect here, you want my arguments to be convincing while I just want them to be sound.
You can be unconvinced and irrational for all I care, but if the discussion is on what is true or not then whether an argument is convincing or not is immaterial, what matters is if it is sound or not. If one side provides evidence/argumentation then it tilts the scales.
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@TheMorningsStar
We seem to be having a communication breakdown. 

If by rational you mean strongly evidenced then anecdotal evidence, no matter how much personal testimony you amass, can never be rational cause for belief. Rational beliefs are based upon reasonable expectations based on independently corroborated evidence. Beliefs based on logical fallacies (like the argument from popularity fallacy that your methodology leaves you vulnerable to) are not in my estimation rational. 

Perhaps we define rational differently?
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@secularmerlin
Rational beliefs are based upon reasonable expectations based on independently corroborated evidence
Now we are certainly having a communication breakdown. How, without making use of the standards presented in the OP, can you rationally hold that there exists 'independently corroborated evidence' for, basically, anything?

It seems to me like your definition of a rational belief has the logical end, when pushed, of solipsism.

I hold that a rational belief is one that is not internally contradictory and is the best explanation of the evidence that one is aware of with justification requiring one to seek evidence for and against said belief (as it is unreasonable to expect someone to be aware of all possible evidence or expect people to suspend judgement until they have access to all possible evidence).
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@TheMorningsStar
Soft solipsism is not something that you can resolve. If that is a problem for me it is equally a problem for you. 

Let's say this experience is an illusion. The "laws of physics" still governs "reality" and "I" am still having a better experience because of "our" understanding of physics and there is still no evidence of any supernatural claim in the way there is evidence of the laws of physics. 

Even if this experience is solipsistic I am still better off employing a healthy skepticism within the context of the experience itself. 
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@secularmerlin
Soft solipsism is not something that you can resolve.
Which axioms one makes use of is, however, important. Which view requires more axioms? Which view requires more wild/complex axioms? etc. Are your views consistent when holding to your set of axioms? All of these determine which viewpoint is preferred, and I am skeptical that your set of axioms leads you to consistent standards if you are rejecting P1, P2, or P3 from my OP. Maybe you have an extra axiom that makes it so that the argument still doesn't work somehow, but then it would be a question on what said axiom is and if it is a necessary or justifiable one to hold to.
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@TheMorningsStar
Let me try another way of asking since we don't seem to be making any headway. 

How do you decide whether it is reasonable to believe that the earth is round or flat given that there is some disagreement on the subject? What in your estimation makes one more reasonable than the other?
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@zedvictor4
My point was that atheists apply their own bias and theists don't.
Isn't that just an example of bias as described in my previous comments?
No. Because this is what I stated:

Athias Post #29:
My point wasn't that atheists apply their own bias and theists don't.
You replaced "wasn't" with "was." (Note: my post you attempted to quote is unedited.)

point of reduction relative to internal experiences, and faith in an assumed experience beyond that which is perceivable.

As opposed to:

A point of reduction relative to internal experiences only......Though with an understanding of the experience that is imagination.


I would suggest that Poly has a tendency derived from experience and reduced to a point, whereby she generally overthinks things. Especially things such as science and theism.
Once again, you make it a point to single out "imagination" when scrutinizing internal experiences, and especially as it concerns internal experiences in juxtaposition to presumed "external" experiences. In this context, I don't think Polytheist_Witch is overthinking anything--just expressing ontological aphorisms.

I love my wife....Scientific application could come to a reasonable conclusion about this.
Not really. Scientific application can attempt to quantify "attachment." Science application can attempt to quantify "(sexual) attraction." Scientific application can even quantify brain imaging which demonstrates a correlative stimulation in particular parts of one's brain in response to certain events, notions, feelings, etc. But "love," the concept varies in definition, in cultural ritual, because it isn't quantifiable.


Of course, LOVE is a general term that is used to describe  a wide variety of internal responses to a wide variety of perceivably external stimuli
What "external stimuli" can one perceive that can be controlled for as "external"?

And of course we can also apply the same general term to imaginary unperceivable external stimuli....That is to say, internally generated stimuli.....A GOD or GODS for example......Imagination as it were.
And what aspect of one's experience DOES NOT necessitate, as you put it, "internal generation"? For example, when one touches something physical, do you think that it does not require an "internally generated image/concept" that not only rationalizes it, but also gives it meaning?
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@Athias
My apologies for the initial oversight.



Well, imagination is the internal development or modification of data, that produces a wholly internal conclusion, which may or may not have the intention of being factually representative of an assumed external reality.

So for sure,  that process might or might not reach a reasonable or factual conclusion.....Depending, I would suggest, to a greater extent upon the veracity of the primary data. 


Though we do have a tendency to incorrectly attribute the word Imagination with a more fanciful,  mystical quality.

Which I would suggest is perhaps why you misinterpret my references to imagination.

Not suggesting that you are being fanciful.

But that my observations relate only to cognitive processes......In so much as we are always prisoners of our brain and it's function.


Poly is undoubtedly imaginative, in respect of GOD and GODS.

And anyway, GOD/S currently can only be satisfactorily accounted for as imaginative concepts.

No one can actually prove the existence of an external entity that is separate from the universe.


And I think that we have a basic understanding when it comes to the concept of love.


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@zedvictor4
Tellinig like it is. 
This is why we pay you the big bucks.....
Nice post man. 


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@zedvictor4
Well, imagination is the internal development or modification of data, that produces a wholly internal conclusion, which may or may not have the intention of being factually representative of an assumed external reality.
Is this any different from one's perception or one's senses?

Though we do have a tendency to incorrectly attribute the word Imagination with a more fanciful,  mystical quality.

Which I would suggest is perhaps why you misinterpret my references to imagination.

Not suggesting that you are being fanciful.

But that my observations relate only to cognitive processes......In so much as we are always prisoners of our brain and it's function.
Fair enough.

No one can actually prove the existence of an external entity that is separate from the universe.
So arguments which attempt to inform metaphysical objectivity are impractical?

And I think that we have a basic understanding when it comes to the concept of love.
That's more cultural than it is scientific.




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@Athias
Is this any different.
I would suggest that our sensory ability allows us to perceive which provides the basis of imagination.

Or are you suggesting that external reality is merely a concept?.....Not that I would whole heartedly disagree.

As all incoming is converted to basically the same......Though I still think that there is a distinction to be made.


So arguments.
I would further suggest that metaphysical objectivity is a contradiction of terms....In terms of, when is a thought process not a thought process?

And thought processes can be regarded as practical or not, in so much as they can provide satisfaction, without necessarily needing to provide a realistic outcome.


That's more cultural.
Fair enough.


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@zedvictor4
That's exactly why i  don't eat sun-dried tomatoes. 
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@BrotherD.Thomas
If you don't mind, I have to make an obvious entity that you forgot about to deduce your initial post down to its irreducible primary for the reader that does believe in a god concept. 

Therefore, which one of the God concepts that are listed below is the reader referring too, because it does matter?

Azura Mazda, Angus, Belenos, Brigid, Dana, Lugh, Dagda, Epona, Allah Aphrodite, Apollo, Ares, Artemis, Atehna, Demeter, Dionysus, Eris, Eos, Gaia, Hades, Hekate, Helios, Hephaestus, Hera, Hermes, Hestia, Pan, Poseidon, Selene, Uranus, Zeus, Mathilde, Elves, Eostre, Frigg, Ganesh, Hretha, Saxnot, Shef, Shiva Thuno, Tir, Vishnu, Weyland, Woden, Yahweh, Alfar, Balder, Beyla, Bil, Bragi, Byggvir, Dagr, Disir, Eir, Forseti, Freya, Freyr, Frigga, Heimdall, Hel, Hoenir, Idunn, Jord, Lofn, Loki, Mon, Njord, Norns, Nott, Odin, Ran, Saga, Sif, Siofn, Skadi, Snotra, Sol, Syn, Ull, Thor, Tyr, Var, Vali, Vidar, Vor, Herne, Holda, Nehalennia, Nerthus, Endovelicus, Ataegina, Runesocesius, Bacchus, Ceres, Cupid, Diana, Janus, Juno, Jupiter, Maia, Mars, Mercury, Minerva, Neptune, Pluto, Plutus, Proserpina, Venus, Vesta, Vulcan, Attis, Cybele, El-Gabal, Isis, Mithras, Sol Invictus, Endovelicus, Anubis, Aten, Atum, Bast, Bes, Geb, Hapi, Hathor, Heget, Horus, Imhotep, Isis, Khepry, Khnum, Maahes, Ma"at, Menhit, Mont, Naunet, Neith, Nephthys, Nut, Osiris, Ptah, Ra, Sekhmnet, Sobek, Set, Tefnut, Thoth, An, Anshar, Anu, Apsu, Ashur, Damkina, Ea, Enki, Enlil, Ereshkigal, Nunurta, Hadad, Inanna, Ishtar, Kingu, Kishar, Marduk, Mummu, Nabu, Nammu, Nanna, Nergal, Ninhursag, Ninlil, Nintu, Shamash, Sin, Tiamat, Utu, Mitra, Amaterasu, Susanoo, Tsukiyomi, Inari, Tengu, Izanami, Izanagi, Daikoku, Ebisu, Benzaiten, Bishamonten, Fukurokuju, Jurojin, Hotei, Quetzalcoatl, Tlaloc, Inti, Kon, Mama Cocha, Mama Quilla, Manco Capac, Pachacamac and Zaramama, Vera.

LOL! @ your utter stupidity and foolishness.  Thanks for giving us all a laugh. 

TheMorningStar was making an argument in respect of a GENERAL god, not a SPECIFIC one. I know this is hard for you to understand - especially given your cognitive stasis but you really need to read the whole of his statement before you jump into one of your nonsensical states of mind.  

Your focus on the specific - means ipso facto that you have ABSOLUTELY misunderstood his argument.  You dill. 
Athias
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@zedvictor4
I would suggest that our sensory ability allows us to perceive which provides the basis of imagination.

Or are you suggesting that external reality is merely a concept?.....Not that I would whole heartedly disagree.

As all incoming is converted to basically the same......Though I still think that there is a distinction to be made.
The point which I've emboldened is key. Since it would be impossible to control for that which is independent of our "conversions" what possible reason or meaning can we give an "external reality"? Do I believe that "external reality" is merely a concept? Yes--an irrational one.

I would further suggest that metaphysical objectivity is a contradiction of terms....In terms of, when is a thought process not a thought process?
I agree.


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@Athias
Good....Rarely do discussions boil down to a general agreement.

Regards.

Zed.