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@Athias
Sounds reasonable, but it's not.
right
there's still a non-insignificant gap between "best-guess-risk" and "actual-risk"
Sounds reasonable, but it's not.
there's still a non-insignificant gap between "best-guess-risk" and "actual-risk"
A number of patents on “coronaviruses” are being used as proof by conspiracy-minded people online that the COVID-19 coronavirus was made in a laboratory
The word “coronavirus” does not identify a single virus but rather an entire subfamily of viruses
and all of these patents are related to the SARS coronavirus or to coronaviruses that affect birds or pigs
THERE WAS NO COVID-19 VACCINE UNTIL 2020.
What you or I care about is not the subject of debate. Any impressions on my "tone" are entirely irrelevant; hence, unwelcome.
Your impressions of my style are irrelevant.
Your incapacity to understand does not render incoherence.
"Seem" is not an argument.
Seem once again is not an argument.
You require instruction on how and why humans and dice are different?
A non sequitur is a conclusion which doesn't logically extend a premise or previously stated argument. I assumed you knew what it was. So when I declare your conclusion a "non sequitur" I am in fact stating that your conclusion does not reflect my premise or previously stated argument. That is, the dispute is not the "validity" of probability.
Nope, not even in the slightest.
Probabilities represents the occurrence of an event with respect to ALL KNOWN possible events.
an estimation of an event given known conditions by summing the impacts of [all known] factors that cause the results of an event to be different.
Not an objection; they're questions. Does it matter? You tell me.
And how have you controlled for this?
You mean your attempt to compare people to dice? People aren't dice isn't an empty objection; it's a fact.
Do you know what an objection is? Because that wasn't one. It was clarification.
How does one test for this representation?
Then you've submitted an irrelevant point to the purview of this discussion.
This is nonsensical.
If the risk is not an explicit prediction of what would happen to an individual personally, why would would it be an explicit prediction considering a composite of individuals?
This is FALLACIOUS REASONING.
"Seem" is not an argument.
You have the detail, but not the validation.
This acknowledgement of your limitations doesn't speak to fact, much less validate your reasoning in lieu:
No, it was an argument. You stated an effect and cause. Here, let me try:
A bullet proof vest….
The argument above which has not been substantiated with valid reasoning.
Income = measure of logic?
Proving "too much"?
Non sequitur and straw man arguments ARE NOT mutually exclusive. And I know what each are.
No, they don't.
No, they're not. Absent of sufficient controls, samples are composites of individual instances; not predictive.
I've seen above and not it does not.
And the reasoning you believe justifies this is fallacious.
I do not entertain FALLACIOUS REASONING.
No, it isn't. The dispute is whether the sampling of so-called "group data" can justify a "predictive argument" about an individual who has been ascribed to said group.
You've straw-manned this dispute. That isn't just an accusation.
Yes, the fallacious reasoning (ecological inferences) from sampling group data doesn't take "my xx into account."
My guy, not only have I been saying this all along, but also you engaged me. Who did I strawman?
No. I have a 50% chance of death. It will either kill me or it wont
Categorically false.
Then how does this contradict my argument that the sampling is contingent on it's assumptive parameters, rendering it essentially guesswork?
I'm not making a repeated error of assuming risk statistics explicitly apply to me personally. I'm using myself as an exemplar for the individual.
Thus, non-predictive. If they do not explicitly apply to individual individually, then the sampling means squat to the prospects of the individual.
No it doesn't. Only the fallacious reasoning based on misinterpretation unwittingly or not of statistics.
Statistics once again do not predict outcomes. They capture trends.
Reproducibility of any given event using statistics has not and cannot be sufficiently controlled.
Good to see you've presented a distinction between the "pick" reflecting a 95% probability and the ball itself having a 95% chance of being a particular color.
No, only FALLACIOUS REASONING.
Yes, it does.
You accuse me of not understanding statistics, yet you make a statement like this? No, that is not the ecological fallacy.
I do not require an explanation. I know what the fallacy is and how its applied.
Avoid a "big part" of the fallacy? Reasoning can be fallacious in parts?
No, it doesn't because of the limitations of the sampling.
No, it would only be valid if the argument was, "95% of the sample, according to our data, have died from the COVID-19 virus." The ecological fallacy would be imputed if this argument becomes predictive and renders that an individual ascribed to a group dictated by the parameters of the sampling has 95% chance of dying.
Both are ecological inference fallacies.
8 days later
Enjoy the rest of your day, sir. I will indulge this regress no more.