In Australia if we say - "it's your wally grout", what does that mean? Wally Grout was an Australian Cricketer. Yet if we heard those words in the local Australian pub - everyone knows its meaning - your turn to buy the round of beers.
😂🤣😂🤣😂🤣😂🤣😂🤣
That is not an idiom.
"Wally Grout" = Shout.
That is rhyming Slang for - "its your shout (round)" rhyming with - Grout. As is Tom - foolery rhyming with - Jewellery. Frog `n` toad rhyming with - Road. Skin and blister rhyming with - Sister. There is no rhyming slang in the scriptures I can assure you of that! Stop taking everyone for the dunce that you yourself are.
Idioms do not have to relate directly to the words contained in the phrase.
But they do , its just that you do not understand what an idiom is. I have myself have pointed out AND explained some the idioms in the New Testament many times since the day I joined here.
Yet God is invisible[ ..........................] For God has no visible face.
Jacob said; please tell me your name. But he replied, why do you ask my name? Then he blessed him there. So Jacob called the place Peniel, saying, it is because
I saw God face to face, and yet my life was spared.”Genesis 32:24-30..
The Lord appeared to Abraham near the great trees of Mamre while he was sitting at the entrance to his tent in the heat of the day. (Genesis 18:1). And they went on to eat and drink. With no visible mouth , I take it!
The Lord would speak to Moses face to face, as one speaks to a friend (Exodus 33:11).
What about The Adam and Eve? And what about the 1 Chronicles 16:11, does it not tell them to "seek his face"? OR Ezekiel 39:29 "I will not hide My face from them any longer"?
Why does this verse always leapt to my mind when YOU - of all people - make theses silly claims;
“You are mistaken, not knowing the Scriptures". Matthew 22:29
Could it be that "god" was just a highly intelligent man at the end of the day? And we in his likeness and image?
Actually there is good evidence to suggest every book in the NT was written prior to AD 70.
There are lots of sources -
It is generally accepted by secular scholars
that the dating of the gospels were written at least 35/50 – 100
years after the crucifixion.
go and read Dr Kenneth Gentry
Have you?
You see for the best part of his work Gentry mainly focusses on the NT Revelation End Times i.e. John's "visions", dreams and nightmares. He doesn't even date the NT to the time that the Christ was alive (unless as I believe, that Jesus actually did survive the cross). And I could be wrong here but isn't he the same person in agreement with those that have in the past called for the imposition of Old Testament laws upon modern society!? And you have the nerve to call me a "dill".
"Made in the image and likeness of God." That is the idiom. What is the Hebrew idiom.
Explain the Idiom in the bold underlined above.
The point is most were written by people with eye witness testimony.
Well Paul, the self confessed liar that some believe to be the founder of Christianity wasn't an eyewitness to the life and times of Christ, was he?
Mark is basically a cooperation between both himself and Peter.
Would this be Simon Peter the fisherman one of the Christ's close disciples?
Luke travelled with Paul- but as a doctor was quite elegant in his notetaking.
So Luke not being a disciple took dictation from Paul the self confessed liar that had never met the Christ . And can you or anyone confirm that it was Luke that actually accompanied Paul at any time, anywhere?
And let me tell you, of the 661 verses in Marks' Gospel, of those Matthew's Gospel uses about 600 and Luke’s Gospel uses about 300. There are also about 200 verses which are very similar in Matthew and Luke, but which are not in Mark. Biblical scholars argue for these verses; Matthew and Luke must have used another written source, which is usually referred to as "Q". The existence of Q is also in dispute, however, almost all agree that Matthew and Luke knew of, and used, Mark.
Historians are in consensus that there is more documentary evidence for the NT and its accuracy than there is for almost any other ancient document.
Do you mean docu- MENTED?
Which historians? What "more documentary" evidence"?
I happen to have a certain trust in the way our historians document and understand things.
Who do you mean when you say " our historians"?
People of course cannot prove anything happened 5 minutes ago.
That seems to go against every single thing that you have said on this thread.
I am merely asking you to find some corroboration for your position
Such as? It is astounding that you say - "I don't need to"
#72- when asked yourself to corroborate anything that you say or claim!?
PER'FECT, adjective [Latin perfectus, perficio, to complete; per and facio, to do or make through, to carry to the end.]
1. Finished; complete; consummate; not defective; having all that is requisite to its nature and kind; as a perfect statue; a perfect likeness; a perfect work; a perfect system.
So that then is the KJV bible dictionary's definition. Are you refusing this definition.
Because you are arguing above the word - perfect .
I asked you - could anyone of us be perfect?
#24 I also asked you to define the word Perfect/ Perfection when the word is used in the bible.
#42
"we still need someone to define for us what perfection is".
#26
I have given you the accepted definitions of the word - perfect and I have also given you the KJV Bible dictionary' definition of the word perfect.
THAT'S WHY!!!!
So do you accept the KJV's Bible dictionary's definition? Yes or no?