The fact that you don't think an argument, which was made with the implications of your argument, doesn't count as an argument, is quite amusing LOL.
You've unwittingly conceded, so thanks.
Given that it’s unclear what you’re point even was, what was the logic behind it, and less clear how it’s relevant or applies: and you don’t seem to want to say, I’ll just wait for you to offer an explanation before trying to disentangle what you’re trying to say; or wait for you to drop what appears to be a nonsensical non-argument.
It's just an accurate label of what you do.
You bs people with sophistry. You're an anti-white shitlib looking to go into semantic funhouses to distract from real arguments.
This is what you always do, and you're about to do it again here.
I would be happy to defend myself if you have specific reasons and justifications for anything you just said
Without that justification - you’re just making unfounded accusations - name calling - which doesn’t require any further response.
“No race realist argues this and I certainly didn't argue this -- horrible strawman you're making here.
Obviously, the environment and genetics play roles in making humans. The debate is to what degree.
You're too busy sniffing your own farts to understand the arguments of the other side.”
Repeated name calling aside; This was based on your quote here:
“The average Black person's intellectual "potential" is lower of that than Whites, Asians, Hispanics and Jews”
However, while I’m happy to change my “solely” to “primarily”; it seems that you implied that you definitively knew what the race gap actually was - and that this true gap was solely down to genetics.
“According to your logic, they would all be the same species because we couldn't 'find the genes' to explain all differences.
Okay, so this argument is a rather ridiculous reductio ad Absurdum. It’s rather bizarre.
To start with, species has a functional definition separate from genetics: “a group of living organisms consisting of similar individuals capable of exchanging genes or interbreeding”. So no, absolutely nothing I’ve suggested would preclude humans, dolphins and chimpanzees, etc being deemed part of the same species. I mean, seriously wtf.
Secondly; I am suggesting that to isolate the cause of slightly varying presentations of a single trait in very genetically related, interbreeding populations, that is known to be impacted by the environment and who do not all share the same environment, one must be able to specifically show that one group shares a specific genetic profile the other does not.
That’s completely reasonable.
This logic can’t reasonably applied to many other scenarios, and certainly not to between humans any non homo-sapien species given that: comparisons are largely not a matter of “slightly varying” with traits being compared largely being wholly dissimilar, the populations have been separated by millions of years of reproductive isolation and independent evolution; the variations of traits within both species do not substantially overlap in normal populations and largely cannot even be compared due to fundamental differences in specifies behaviour and morphology, and that known impact of environment is not known to be able to meaningfully shift the variance in any meaningful way in a way that allows a compared trait to differ in those similar species solely by environmental factors.
In this respect: comparing, say, apes and humans; the extent of evolutionary change, genomic distance, and possible environmental influence makes it reasonable to discount environmental factors when comparing almost any aspect of two disparate species.
However - if Two groups of Chimpanzees lived in very different areas, had different diets, and one exhibited slightly more intelligence; one would certainly need to determine what genetic differences there were between the groups that impacted intelligence, and show one group had more the other before asserting the difference is genetic.
So no; your objection here is utterly ridiculous and clearly nonsense.
I'd argue that intelligence is about 80% hereditary
Firstly, the maximum value of heredity in some studies is 80%, the lowest goes down to about 20% in some circumstances. So what you’re doing here is called cherry picking.
The bigger issue, however, is that I think you have completely misunderstood what a Heritability measurement means in genetics.
Saying IQ has a heredity of 0.8 doesn’t mean that 80% of IQ an individuals is down to genetics.
It means that in a group of people being sampled with a range of IQs; 80% of the variation of IQs is expected to be due to differences in genes, and 20% due to differences in the environment of the individuals being compared. It doesn’t take into consideration the impact of environmental factors that may be shared by all, or shared between compared groups - for example there may well be specific impacts of having all environments meet qualifying standards for adoption.
Values of heritability only work as a broad measure of all environmental impacts if you use a broad set of disparate environments in the comparisons - for example things such as comparing multiple sets of identical twins that were brought up one in extreme squalor vs extreme affluence. L
I have no doubt, for example, that in one key study, the environments provided by swedes qualifying as adoptive parents in 1994 are sufficiently similar to one another to account for only 20% of the variation between children placed in their care. This does not mean intelligence will only vary by 20% compared to their twin if one identical twin is adopted to poor farmers in the democratic republic of Congo.
Given the substantial variations in assessed heritability of IQ in various groups depending on the method of measure; including a broadly consistent array of data indicating that environment can have a significant impact on IQ in a variety of ways, especially at the lower end of the socioeconomic scale; the conclusion you draw is largely is unwarranted.
The fundamental problem you have, is that you’re still continuing to simply assert that correlation is causation. Thats a very basic, very simple and very common fallacy.
It’s simple - to not be using that fallacy, you must know, genetically, what causes intelligence, and know that particular races have less of whatever that is.
The alternative is to be able to perform a test that is able to measure someone’s intelligence, and is able to correct for every possible environmental contribution to that persons Intelligence - thats not only never been done - but is also so utterly impractical as to be essentially impossible.
The bottom line is very simple:
I explained the various factors that determine intelligence from conception; there is MASSIVE variation in all those factors across various social, ethnic and national groups for multiple non genetic reasons: there is huge capacity, potential and avenue for many forms of environmental impact on intelligence.
If intelligence is primarily genetic, then there should be strong correlation between particular genes or sets of genes; and intelligence - there is not. That undermines your conclusion too.
If intelligence is primarily impacted by environmental factors, which largely correlate with race; then there should be evidence of various environmental factors that impact intelligence - and there is (iron, iodine, adoption studies comparing affluence of adoptive parents, extreme poverty ,abuse, broadly show that there is a large impact on intelligence from non genetic factors); that undermines your conclusion too.
You point to hereditary values of intelligence, without fully understanding the meaning of the term - which again undermines your conclusion.
You also point to G-loaded tests - you seem to present these as being fully independent of environment and culture - which they are clearly and definitively not. They are absolutely correcting for obvious issues such as not being dependent on the pre-existence of learned concepts; but that’s only one of a neat infinite array of various factors external to genetics. If you have an impaired IQ due to having been malnourished, exposed to lead, and having been abused - or any one of a number of other environmental possibilities - the test will not correct or adjust for that. How can it?
Relying on G-loaded in this way may correct for slightly more things than an IQ test, but still leaves you dependent on having to assume correlation is causation in order for the claims to be true.
I mean - your statement that these tests are a measure of genetic variation; can be blown out of the water by the fact that western IQ has gone up by around 15 points in a few decades which can’t be explained by any specific genetic factors; and exceeds that “80%” assertion.
In fact the whole principle that IQ is a normalized comparative value - not an absolute undermines your use of it as an absolute indicator of genetic attributes.
That’s the really the bottom line here; you are assuming that because African Americans score lower, that it’s genetic. But until you can specifically tell that it’s genetic, you can’t make that assertion; and given that a huge amount of the data undermines that assertion - as I have shown it’s even less valid.