I have to summarize here, as it seems you have lost track of what is being argued.
1.) You listed the possible options, and suggested one of those options appeared most likely.
2.) I pointed out problems with the nature of temporal causality; and showed how a restated list more accurately shows the issues with our notions of causality.
Q1 Can you please explain what aspect of my restructuring you felt was illogical?
Q2 Can you explain how you account for the issues of temporal causation that I raised in your argument? This is a critical omission on your part.
3.) You challenge the definition of “causality” that I use.
Q3 It’s not clear how using either definition of causality - including the one you prefer invalidates any of the points I was making? Can you please refer back to my original post and explain why and how using a different definition causes my point to be invalid?
4.) I pointed out which of the definitions you use is irrelevant as my argument still stands - as the temporal aspects of causality is the specifically critical part.
I even quoted it again.
5.) you repeat the accusation.
You fail to show how the definitions apply to my argument.
(See Q2 and Q3)
6.) I address your claim by taking each definition in turn and showing how assuming that definition and using it to show how your original claim - and my original restatement still holds.
So all caught up!
Your response:
“It matters because you are using a flawed definition of the Law of Causality”
“Please explain why a cause must have a cause.”
Huh, wut? I am not making that claim. Anywhere. In fact, if you had read my argument, it should be clear that this is the utter, complete, inside out opposite of what I am doing.
My argument explains the conditions where the word cause makes sense and can be applied, and where it does not. My first reply to you, and all other since expressly and explicitly point out that certain configurations of the universe cannot be considered to have a cause - because the word no longer has meaning.
Q4: can you please walk me through the logical process you used to determine that my argument assumed all things have a cause - when it’s central premise was to question whether certain things can be said to have a cause? I’m scratching my head.
Perhaps you are confused with my walk through. I simply took both definitions, and applies them to my argument:
For your information, I apply the first definition when I said:
“That something can exist without
....
So that’s one side of your definition.”
And the second definition when I said:
“Now, the final possible option is that the rules of causality do not require a cause to itself have a cause...”
Both definitions are right there in my previous post..
Q5: Can you please re-read my last post, and explain how you took it to mean I was assuming one definition, when the post was clearly and explicitly in two parts, and explicit about how I was assessing both definitions?
You also appear to object to me applying a given definition to you; which is weird, since I have done no such thing.
As I reject the central premise of your reply - that I am forcing a definition on you, there’s really no more to say - I have no need to defend an argument I’m not making.
As you appeared to have come of the rails - by diving into a side track and forgetting what we are talking about - I forced you back to my original point (you confuse this with circling back).
So as your argument is attacking an argument I’m not making; and as you still appear to be ignoring what I’m trying to argue: let me restate my point again.
Your original list is not appropriately constructed because time is central to discussions of cause; and you have to start from the point of determining the conditions where cause as we understand it makes sense. You can’t pepper your language with the word “cause” if you haven’t established the conditions in which the word makes sense.
IE: to have a beginning, to have a cause, to be caused, etc - in the way we understand the terms - requires time to exist.
That’s the central point I am making.
Q6: You have not raised any objection to this temporal aspect of causality any time I have raised it. It’s fair to presume that your repeated lack of objection indicates you accept it, right?
As a result, to ask whether the universe has a cause or was created; one must separate configurations where those words have meaning and where it doesn’t.
IE: does the universe exist at all points of time, or not.
If it does - discussion of cause, or creation, etc, is meaningless because it’s not possible to have the cause preceding effect with no time reference.
That applies equally to both of your definitions of causality; so my argument remains valid in both cases. Indeed, I have been explicitly using examples of the universe having a cause and not having a cause.
Q7: Why on earth did you ask whether my definition of causality requires everything to have a cause in an argument where I am using examples of things having a cause or not?
Q8: How on earth do you feel it’s valid to accuse me of assuming all things have a cause, when the core of my argument is explicitly about explaining the conditions where a thing cannot have a cause? Are you reading my argument?
This is what I don’t get, it’s like you didn’t actually read it: and you simply found some part you could object to; and ignored whether the objection was relevant at all.
The upshot of my point: is that time itself cannot be caused in any way we understand the word without violating our understanding of causality: that a cause and effect must be temporally related.
Q9: do you object to this point? That time cannot be caused in any way we understand it? What is your objection? You’ve ignored this when I have pointed this out.
So we are left with two options: that universe (the root physical reality in which time is manifest) wither wasn’t caused, or our concept causality breaks down.
Or in other words: I am not assuming all things have a cause or not - I don’t know - each is a possible solution from argument. Hence why demanding that I say which I have been choosing is kinda weird.
So in your list; plugging that into your list we get.
The universe(the root physical reality in which time is manifest) is eternal: time wasn’t created and is infinite or time wasn’t created and is finite.
Time
The universe came from nothing/caused itself: this is either functionally the same as above; or is not a coherent option because our notions causality break down.
The universe was caused by something else: this is not a coherent option because our notions of causality break down.
This leads me back to my original conclusion. You suggest the first is more reasonable, but that’s clearly nonsense; because what you are describing is inherently incoherent.
Now, here’s the fundamental thing: we are left with 3 possible options from the above:
Everything has a cause: (first definition)
Some things don’t need a cause: (second definition)
We don’t understand causality, and our notion of cause doesn’t apply to the universe.
I have no clue which it is: though My personal preference is the latter - I have no basis in which to declare our notions of causality is universal even though that seems to be the basis for all theists in this thread.
Your original conclusion - that the universe must have been caused by something, however, is equally invalid in all three possibilities. (Can’t need to be caused if wasn’t caused, can’t need to be caused if doesn’t need a cause, can’t need to be caused if the nature of causation is invalid)
Q10: given this is time #3 explaining why your list and conclusion is faulty, and how, which part of my reasoning do you object to and why?