What gap are you referring to ?
Pardon. What "overlap" is that?
P1 requires demonstration.
Naturally the claim, "God does not exist" affirms the truth value of God's nonexistence. If we operate on the definition I submitted, the presupposition, "God does not exist," is tantamount to "God has no real being whether material or spiritual." (I don't believe there would be any contention against God, at the very least, being spiritual.) Everything, if you remember, is all that which exists, and therefore Everything must exist; and the antipode, Nothing is that which does not exist; hence, Nothing must not exist. If we take it back a bit further, the presupposition "God does not exist" is also tantamount to "the author of the claim, 'God does not exist,' knows God does not exist." Or at the very least, the author is presuming to know that God does not exist. And since the presupposition proposes that God is in the realm of nothing or nonexistence, it is presuming that nonexistence can be known. Perception is instrument of knowledge, i.e. rationalized and cultivated information. Thus, "If one claims, "God does not exist," one presumes the nonexistent can be perceived."
P1 demonstrated.
[1.]
I never stated that my disagreement with your claim was an expression
of private gnosis. I stated that private gnosis on its own needs not be
rationally defensible.
[1.] You forgot to answer my question.
Your question was already addressed in post #440.
[2.] I suspected as much. That is why I corrected you.
You've corrected nothing; once again, I was not confirming your statement.
[3.] Why is that ?
Because of the meaning of "value."
4.'] We are arguing about definitions while you should be supporting your claim.
The two aren't mutually exclusive. And that's my point. You questioned the definitions I've submitted, and when pressed to expand on your scrutiny, you provide rather than substantiation, more questions.
It is the prerogative of the side that presents a case / argument to choose definitions, within reason.
"Within reason"? What would be an unreasonable choice?
[4.''] Because it is false.
Substantiate your assertion that my position is false.
[78] Name-giving is not an assumptive characteristic.
This has nothing to do with what we were talking about. You claimed "knowing something about X requiring information from X" is an assumption. I rejected your characterizing it as an assumption, and then subsequently demanded that you "substantiate this assumptive characteristic."
Please explain how “[b] Because the nonexistent does not exist. The
nonexistent provides no information. How does one identify a "Spino" if
its nonexistence renders information on itself logically incoherent?” is
supposed to support that one cannot know Spino does not exist.
Because, "Spino" is an identifier, i.e. a name which provides information. Once you've identified "Spino," acknowledged information of its existence.
[b] In debates I have the habit of using words that are not an argument. I have noticed you do that too. Is that inappropriate ?
No matter how many times you attempt to reciprocate in this tit for tat, "seem" is not now nor has it ever been an argument. And when you employ it in your discussions with me, I will without fail point that out.
If you can't find the right terms to make your argument,
I already did and submitted them.
you may even invent terms.
Are you being facetious?
You could for example add a qualifier before or after 'exist' or 'existence'.
No need.
I have shown no unwillingness to assume my burden.
Yes, you most certainly have.
You on the other hand have shown unwillingness to assume your burden of proof.
I'm the only person in our discussion providing information to his argument. You see, I am not lazy.
You have again failed to answer my question
I didn't fail to answer your question. Your question was already addressed in post #454.
[a''] You are correct: I haven't stated there is something unnecessary in your definition.
What? Do you not remember this:
[a] I asked first, but I will humour you. You would not refer to mind
and spirit in your definition of 'to exist' and 'material' to avoid
bias, unnecessary limitations and unnecessary complications and filling.
[b] I don't understand, but since I am not interested in discussing
definitions and don't want to give you more excuses to stall, I don't
object.
Stalling? Buddy, I asked you about these definitions over a month ago. And it's just in latest response that you've made a decision about them one way or another; I am not the one who's stalling.
[c] You were impolite.
My politeness is not a subject of discussion.
[d] I don't know.
You have affirmed that my position is false. Is that not based on a counterexample or counterfactual?
It is your claim (premise P1). I suspect that with God
(not) existing people mean God is part of reality, i.e. makes reality
different through his existence, other than by being believed to exist.
Reality can be considered to be the universe.
Is this the position you maintain? Because I'm not having a discussion with "people." I'm having a discussion with you.
The question was : “Does everything include nonexistent things?”, where everything is all things that exist.
Your response : “Nothing does not exist. The nonexistent does not exist.”
I agree that answers the question.
Then what was your point in stating that it didn't answer your question to begin with? And yes, I excluded the last sentence of the portion because that is your response, not mine. I only own that I which I state.
[g] Sorry, but I don't understand your question.
The laws of physics or nature are inextricably tied to Mathematics--an abstract; logic is abstract. So when you state you measure "impossibility," you are applying abstracts, correct?
[81] So the nonexistent cannot be imagined. Does imagining something
nonexistent cause it to exist or is it impossible to imagine something
if it does not exist prior ?
Neither. The nonexistent does not exist, and therefore there is no "it" to imagine. And if "it" exists prior to one's imagination, then its existence is independent of one's imagination.