No - you cherry picked the numbers that showed TODAY black and white families get the same level of inhereitance, and that TODAY Black Americans get only 1/3 of what white people, however, you completely ignore the fact that this is a generational problem as the people who wrote the report you used literally specifcy, you know, that it causes more of the black/white gap than anything else?
This is not a fair characterization. You argued that wealth for the typical household in the United States primarily comes from home equity (true) and inheritance (false.) I didn't "cherry pick" numbers--I used the numbers that exist regarding what percentage of people receive an inheritance, and what the median amount is, and did the math to figure out how much this contributes to the wealth gap between the median black and white household. Now, what you're hung up about is this statement:
By some estimates bequests and transfers account for at least half of aggregate wealth (Gale and Scholz 1994), have recently averaged 3 percent of total household disposable personal income (Feiveson and Sabelhaus 2018), and account for more of the racial wealth gap than any other demographic or socioeconomic indicator (Hamilton and Darrity 2010)
Which is a completely fair thing for you to bring up! But in my last post, I gave some reasons why I don't agree with these estimates, and how figuring this out is INCREDIBLY difficult. We have decent (not perfect) data on inheritance but anything beyond that is nebulous at best. Why don't you do some research and point out some competing numbers, because I did the math for you and it simply doesn't add up. The bolded part isn't even relevant at all to the discussion because that's talking about the total, not the experience of the median household. The second part is relevant but it is, recall, still an estimate. The study it links to is paywalled and is about baby bonds (idk) so who knows. It seems incredibly unlikely to me that intergenerational wealth in general makes up the majority of the wealth gap because as we can see from the hard data that for median households inheritance only explains around 10% of the gap. That is a loooooooot of "intergenerational transfers." If you've got numbers put em up!
Kinda' interesting how you and your sources always disagree- then I provided more evidence which you have... ignored? ...You cherry pick dude, if you're gonna use a source, actually read all of it, instead of ignoring the bits you don't like.
This is a very uncharitable thing to say. I used the source appropriately because I was citing it for the hard data on median inheritance value.
I remember when we debating immigration you got really hung up about the fact that the author of the article I used for my meat packing case study was pro-immigration. Now I admit it is a fun, cheeky thing for you to point out in a debate context and I don't blame you for it. But neither you nor he actually disputed the facts I was citing, which was about how the meatpacking industry was destroyed by an influx of cheap labor. You don't get to just say "ahh well the author illogically concludes that immigration is good anyway so your facts are wrong!" Likewise, you can't say "well sure thett, you laid out the numbers for me but your source mentions another study that might disagree, so you're wrong!" You gotta do the work.
Here is an example that may illustrate our disagreement on the use of sources...I'm sure you have heard of those famous studies about sending resumes with "black" names and "white names" to employers and seeing how the black sounding names get call backs less often. Those studies have been criticized for potentially revealing class bias and not racial bias (sure Lakisha loses to Robert Bruce III, but so would Billy-Bob.) Some researchers did a study where instead of using "black" sounding first names, they used surnames that were overwhelmingly black, overwhelmingly latino, and overwhelmingly white and used the same first names. What they found was that there was "no statistically significant differences across race, ethnic or gender groups." However, this clearly wasn't what they expected or wanted to find, and the article cites the co-author himself who isn't sure about the conclusions because he doesn't know if employers were able to know if a surname was "black" or not (although hispanic ones would be obvious), so it's possible that employers would choose to discriminate if they knew. Do you think it would be inappropriate to cite this source if you were arguing against systemic discrimination? Personally, I don't think it would be at all. We have a study with a certain methodology, and these were the results.
Ultimately it's an appeal to authority. It's a solid authority to appeal to, but I trust myself to be able to read the results and come to my own conclusions. Make sense? I've treated you with respect (and will continue to do so) and ask that you do the same for me. Picking into peoples sources is ABSOLUTELY fine, but implying that I'm an idiot or being dishonest when I'm just being nuanced isn't appreciated.