Taxes, and the case of the helpful billionare

Author: Theweakeredge

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fauxlaw
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@Theweakeredge
You misunderstand. True, the fetus cannot develop any item on my list in gestation, which was my point: development does not conclude at the end of gestation, as was your #27. What consciousness has anything to do with it is beyond me, but yu brought that up, too. You also claimed in #27 that personhood either is had, or it isn't. I replied that 1 USC 1 § 8 differed from the Victims of Unborn Violence Act, because the latter recognizes personhood even in pre-natal condition since the perp of such a crime can be charged with murder of the fetus. Only a person can be murdered; no other life form.
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What? You've interpreted that code to mean pre-natal, but obviously, it's not murder, ya know, cause its legal. It literally can't be murder if it's legal to kill a thing - and that's accepting that thing has personhood - which I disagree with.

And consciousness has been the entire point, a fetus has no consciousness, which is literally the root of all moral and ethical value. 
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Rather than pontificate, why don’t you read both statutes I’ve cited. They disagree with one another relative to personhood. And a fetus is only mostly unconscious, but not 100%. I’ll cite
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www.pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov


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The full link sends me to the search bar... which -cool- but ya know an actual study would be nice, and the link sends me to "Cannot load page"
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Er.. sorry it's a "can't load page"
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Yeah, I notice the link is messed up. I’ll correct when I get home.
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As I've discussed the idea of taxing the rich more, there has been some, well, pushback.
Presumably understandable.

That these people are paying more than their fair share, that they provide all of the income for the government, etc, etc.
Well, there really isn't a "fair share," but the rich do pay more with respect to number and proportion.

Here's the thing, the fundamental things - whenever a rich person it taxed almost any percentage of taxes, they will have more than enough income to live on
Is it really up to you or any other party to dictate the amount that is "enough" for them? Or dictate the ends toward which they put it?

Furthermore, let's assume that Biden's 15 dollar an hour minimum wage passes - that's 15 dollars times an average workweek of 40 hours, multiplied by four for your gross monthly income
That would only create unemployment.

That's approximately $2400, so, to deduct that 50% income tax, you get 1,200 dollars. According to Statistica, in January of 2021 (the last recorded data point), that is an overall cost of $1,124... so - rent - costs nearly your entire gross monthly salary - and that's not even considering if you have kids, or any other bills you have to pay, like internet, car insurance, health insurance, utilities, etc, etc. And this is all presuming that the minimum wage is increased to 15 dollars an hour. 

According to Pew. Research and Business Insider, the median interest of the group considered the "rich" is $187,872 - to be charitable, we'll round down to 185,000 dollars annually. So dividing that number in half, we get 92,500 annually, and 7,708 monthly.. which, is enough to pay what Statistica reports as the average rent for a house of more than 5 people, more than four times over
One is having difficulties paying some bills so one should either steal from his neighbor or coercing said neighbor in subsidizing one's debts?

so- to say that a tax will affect each level of income earner the same is to not understand what fractions can do to different proportions. This is, fundamentally why, the rich ought to be taxed more than the poor.
Not really fundamental. You just came up with a rationale on which to base your promotion of taxing the rich more based on your presumption of an unjustifiable prerogative to dictate that which is "enough."

Not to make them also struggle, but to overcome this basic principle of proportionality. 
It's not a principle. It's solely based on the circumstances of the poor which you argue ought to be subsidized by the rich, whether said rich volunteer or not.
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@Theweakeredge

but, also

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@fauxlaw
Here is what your second, and much more authoritative source, says on this issue:
In reviewing the neuroanatomical and physiological evidence in the fetus, it was apparent thatconnections from the periphery to the cortex are not intact before 24 weeks of gestation and,as most neuroscientists believe that the cortex is necessary for pain perception, it can beconcluded that the fetus cannot experience pain in any sense prior to this gestation. After 24weeks there is continuing development and elaboration of intracortical networks such thatnoxious stimuli in newborn preterm infants produce cortical responses. Such connections tothe cortex are necessary for pain experience but not sufficient, as experience of external stimulirequires consciousness. Furthermore, there is increasing evidence that the fetus neverexperiences a state of true wakefulness in utero and is kept, by the presence of its chemicalenvironment, in a continuous sleep-like unconsciousness or sedation. This state can suppresshigher cortical activation in the presence of intrusive external stimuli. This observationhighlights the important differences between fetal and neonatal life and the difficulties ofextrapolating from observations made in newborn preterm infants to the fetus.
So.... yeah - please take that in. 
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@Athias
Umm... a lot of these responses are irrelevant and in response to snippets that are out of context  - or at the very least your response is framed as a response to something which the quoted portion is not trying to establish. You've also made some claims... um, prove it, and lastly - yes - we should declare what is "enough" - certainly we should, and we should certainly fight back against exploitative capitalism being described as income that someone "deserved".

Tell me, why is trading stocks worth more than teaching young people? Or surgery or things that actually benefit society? Such a thing is quite arbitrary, and the mere fact that someone is wealthy does not mean that they "earned" that wealth. 
Athias
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@Theweakeredge
Umm... a lot of these responses are irrelevant and in response to snippets that are out of context
By all means, elucidate the proper context.

or at the very least your response is framed as a response to something which the quoted portion is not trying to establish.
For example?

You've also made some claims... um, prove it,
Which claims were those?

and lastly - yes - we should declare what is "enough" - certainly we should
Why? Why do you believe that you (and you can serve as proxy for yourself as well as those of your political ilk) ought to have the capacity to dictate that which is "enough" for another?

and we should certainly fight back against exploitative capitalism being described as income that someone "deserved".
1. What is exploitative Capitalism?
2. Why should it be fought against?
3. Why are those who participating in exploitative Capitalism undeserving of their income?

Tell me, why is trading stocks worth more than teaching young people?
Because trading stocks generates more commerce than teaching young people does. One is willing to pay a stockbroker more for his/her services than one is willing to pay a teacher for his/hers.

Or surgery or things that actually benefit society?
Trading stocks also benefits societies.

Such a thing is quite arbitrary, and the mere fact that someone is wealthy does not mean that they "earned" that wealth. 
And by which metric do you gauge one's "earning" one's wealth?
Theweakeredge
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So because it generates more commerce its worth more? Uhuh - I suppose I don't have to remind you of the economic arguments for slavery, do I? Or forcibly starving people? The mere fact that doing something creates more profit means nothing in regards to its actual worth to society, please do explain how trading stocks benefits societies, I wait with bated breath.

Furthermore, an example of an out-of-context thing you took:
Furthermore, let's assume that Biden's 15 dollar an hour minimum wage passes - that's 15 dollars times an average workweek of 40 hours, multiplied by four for your gross monthly income
That would only create unemployment.
The point wasn't advocating for Joe's bill, the point was that even given a thing that's not true, most poor people can't generate enough wealth to pay for basic necessities. Its such an obtuse thing to get wrong, I scarcely believe that you're doing it unintentionally. 

Exploitative Capitilism? Let me think - monopolizing an industry effectively eliminating any other prices for a product, not allowing workers to form worker unions, the general concept of never receiving the full worth of their labour? All of the above, and the easy answer is easy, just give 'em what they need to live for free. How do you "gauge" wealth - three questions buckaroo - "How many times over could that dude afford housing?" "How much surplus money does that dude have after paying ever basic utility?" and "how many zeroes are at the end of that check?" It's pretty easy, they do it to poor people all the time, frightened at the prospect of rich people getting it done to them?

As for the claim? "That would create unemployment",  bud
Athias
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@Theweakeredge
So because it generates more commerce its worth more?
Yes.

Uhuh - I suppose I don't have to remind you of the economic arguments for slavery, do I? Or forcibly starving people?
The issues with slavery have nothing to do with the commerce it generates. You would have to justify the comparison between slavery and trading securities as it concerns worth.

As for forcibly starving people, expand on that more. Where is the "force" coming from? Who's responsible for it? How are they responsible?

The mere fact that doing something creates more profit means nothing in regards to its actual worth to society, please do explain how trading stocks benefits societies, I wait with bated breath.
Easy: trading stocks facilitates the financing of companies and their ventures which contribute to investment in and creation of the technologies to which you've availed yourself. Furthermore, by selling ownership stakes in companies, participants are allowed to generate passive income. Trading stocks also facilitates capital flows transferring money from where its least productive (in one's mattress) to where its more productive (investment spending.)

The point wasn't advocating for Joe's bill, the point was that even given a thing that's not true, most poor people can't generate enough wealth to pay for basic necessities. Its such an obtuse thing to get wrong, I scarcely believe that you're doing it unintentionally
I didn't accuse you of advocating a $15 per hour minimum wage, only that proposition of imposing it would result in the creation of unemployment.

Exploitative Capitilism? Let me think - monopolizing an industry effectively eliminating any other prices for a product
How does an industry become a monopoly in Capitalism? Are there any examples in history?

not allowing workers to form worker unions,
How does Capitalism disallow the formation of worker unions?

general concept of never receiving the full worth of their labour?
What is the full worth of their labor? (You may provide an example if necessary.)

All of the above, and the easy answer is easy, just give 'em what they need to live for free.
What? I don't quite understand where you went with this?

How do you "gauge" wealth - three questions buckaroo - "How many times over could that dude afford housing?" "How much surplus money does that dude have after paying ever basic utility?" and "how many zeroes are at the end of that check?"
I didn't ask how you gauged one's wealth. I asked how you gauged one's "earning" one's wealth.

It's pretty easy, they do it to poor people all the time, frightened at the prospect of rich people getting it done to them?s
That matter isn't fear. It's justifying the reasons it ought to be.

As for the claim? "That would create unemployment",  bud
Easy: it's the law of diminishing marginal productivity, i.e. an additional worker's input at a certain point eventually contributes little if any to overall productivity. Whenever there's a price floor, there's a distortion created between supply and demand for labor. So for example, the government's implementing a $15 minimum wage doesn't mean everyone is going to get paid $15 dollars. It simply means that the government has outlawed the employment of those who's labor generates commerce at $14.99 or less. That is, their productivity is now legally unemployable. This creates unemployment (especially among low/un-skilled labor.)


Theweakeredge
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@Athias
Um.... yes - slavery was fundamentally a capitalistic venture, it was a way to have labour for free drastically increasing profit margins. It has everything to do with that.  And trading stock helps facilitate new goods and products, oh look how the competition helps increase the quality of goods... not - a majority of any profits derived from stock trading is taken as personal profit, the meandering stuff used in actual development might as well be the light bulb industry (constantly decreasing in quality)

Did... you seriously just ask that question? "what industries become monopolies in capitalism?" I'm not designing that one with a response - well - not a sentence response - just a name: Rockafeller. Because worker unions want better working conditions, more pay, etc - all of which take from the bottom line of profit, something pure capitalism is against. Does a worker who makes, grows, whatever, some good get all of the pay for the full worth of that thing? I.e - does a McDonald employee get paid for every burger they make? Well no - because its not really a labour system - fundamentally speaking - you aren't paying workers what they make... literally. 

How do you gauge one's "earnings" of wealth? Um... how much did that person tangibly contribute to society? Like, actually contribute? 

Funny that argument there - did you know that was the exact same argument people used against there being a minimum wage? Do you know what the easy solution there is bud? Companies literally have to pay 15 dollars at a minimum, that just means rising the amount they pay - do you think that thousands of companies are just going to be "okay then, if you won't work for 7:50, then you won't work at all!" of course freaken' not - that would be incredibly stupid. The problem with your argument is that its purely theoretical...ya know how i know that? Because we've seen it FAIL BEFORE. 



Athias
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@Theweakeredge
Um.... yes - slavery was fundamentally a capitalistic venture, it was a way to have labour for free drastically increasing profit margins.
Slavery wasn't fundamentally capitalistic. Chattel slavery was informed primarily by legal recognition and legal enforcement. Ironically enough, one of the first legal cases which established chattel Slavery, at least here in the United States, was instigated by a so-called "black" man (Anthony Johnson I believe) who served as plaintiff in a dispute with an indentured servant, who lost the case and became a slave.  Not to mention, the government was also taxing imports on slaves.

Again, the issues with Slavery wasn't the commerce it generated.

And trading stock helps facilitate new goods and products, oh look how the competition helps increase the quality of goods... not - a majority of any profits derived from stock trading is taken as personal profit, the meandering stuff used in actual development might as well be the light bulb industry (constantly decreasing in quality)
Give an example.

Did... you seriously just ask that question? "what industries become monopolies in capitalism?" I'm not designing that one with a response - well - not a sentence response - just a name: Rockafeller.
So, Standard Oil? Standard Oil had over 150 competitors before the Government forced its dissolution. Standard Oil by no description was a "monopoly." It just out-competed its competitors.

Because worker unions want better working conditions, more pay, etc - all of which take from the bottom line of profit, something pure capitalism is against.
Please explain how better working conditions, more pay, etc necessarily all take from the bottom line of profit.

Does a worker who makes, grows, whatever, some good get all of the pay for the full worth of that thing? I.e - does a McDonald employee get paid for every burger they make? Well no - because its not really a labour system - fundamentally speaking - you aren't paying workers what they make... literally. 
So Marx's labor theory of value? So it isn't the commerce generated by a composite of subjective values in a particular market that determines price, but it's the "surplus value" imbued by the labor in spite of the fact that workers contract to sell their labor at predetermined wage? Hiring capital, employing equipment, dissemination, advertising, and most of all the consumer's preferences has nothing to do with it?

How do you gauge one's "earnings" of wealth? Um... how much did that person tangibly contribute to society? Like, actually contribute? 
So let's say for example if I fix up of some junkers and sell them for a pretty penny, I would not have "earned" my compensation because I did not "tangibly contribute to society"? 

Funny that argument there - did you know that was the exact same argument people used against there being a minimum wage?
Yes. The minimum wage should be eliminated.

Do you know what the easy solution there is bud? Companies literally have to pay 15 dollars at a minimum, that just means rising the amount they pay - do you think that thousands of companies are just going to be "okay then, if you won't work for 7:50, then you won't work at all!" of course freaken' not - that would be incredibly stupid.
No, not necessarily stupid. It's cost analysis. If their productivity doesn't generate commerce at any more than $7.50 an hour, then it's prudent to demand one work at $7.50 with the prospect of unemployment, underemployment, or disemployment. It's stupid to pay one more than what their labor is worth.

The problem with your argument is that its purely theoretical...ya know how i know that?
Well, it is Economics.

Because we've seen it FAIL BEFORE. 
Reference?


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@Athias
Please provide any evidence for your claims in regards to slavery, because you haven't linked a single thing - furthermore... yes - it was fundamentally capitalistic - the problem was that people were willing to treat humans as a means to make profit, that is the fundamental problem with slavery, owning human beings. It is a necessarily capitalistic problem, like whether land ought to be ownable. Its as like if I were to say that 2 + 2 is fundamentally a science problem because of its relevance to valence electrons and not math, yes, an extrapolated problem with slavery was the legal enforcement, but the principle itself is capitalistic. 

"By 1880, Standard Oil owned or controlled 90 percent of the U.S. oil refining business, making it the first great industrial monopoly in the world. But in achieving this position, Standard violated its Ohio charter, which prohibited the company from doing business outside the state. Rockefeller and his associates decided to move Standard Oil from Cleveland to New York City and to form a new type of business organization called a "trust.""
Mmhm, excuse me if I don't exactly accept your implied definition of monopoly - Furthermore, if you want an example - take lightbulbs. Um.... of you pay workers more. you keep less from sales, the same goes for implementing safety protocols and such - that's fairly simple. Um..... those are the things that companies use to fine-tune their profits, but the fact of the matter is that increase in profit is using the labour of the worker to do things that aren't paying the worker, perhaps that something that should or should not be done, the fact is that it happens, and it doesn't just happen to people who don't need the extra money, that kind of thing is what perpetuates the minimum wage. 

Fix up what junkers? What are you talking about? But if I'm able to interpret what you mean, fixing cars and selling them does have a benefit to society... people will have cars to drive for transportation. And oh, we should eliminate the minimum wage.. why? You do realize that before it was implemented that was how people were taken advantage off, kept in literal serfdom? Because that's what happened prior to that bud. Having workers at all matters more than paying them more money, its absurd to argue either wise - which would you rather have - no workers or workers paid more? The answer is [retty simple to me. 



fauxlaw
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@Theweakeredge
Yes, up to 24 weeks, whereas full term is 13 weeks later. 24 weeks appears to be the threshold of pre-natal consciousness, as per both my 2nd cited article, and this: https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/25160864/
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24weeks there is continuing development and elaboration of intracortical networks such thatnoxious stimuli in newborn preterm infants produce cortical responses. Such connections tothe cortex are necessary for pain experience but not sufficient, as experience of external stimulirequires consciousness. Furthermore, there is increasing evidence that the fetus neverexperiences a state of true wakefulness in utero and is kept, by the presence of its chemicalenvironment, in a continuous sleep-like unconsciousness or sedation. This state can suppresshigher cortical activation in the presence of intrusive external stimuli. This observationhighlights the important differences between fetal and neonatal life and the difficulties ofextrapolating from observations made in newborn preterm infants to the fetus.
Uhuh, and notice what it says after that, that the connections made in the brain of a 24 week old aren't valid to be considered consciousness, that there is evidence that fetus are never true conscious in the womb, etc, etc - point is - there is quite obviously a distinction between a born fetus, and a in-the-womb fetus. One of those things is consiousness
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Oh? So sticking a needle in a sleeping person, or slapping them, does not awaken them to consciousness? Try it. I have. Both effects. They do.



Full-term is 37 weeks.
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@fauxlaw
Again - a difference between having consciousness and then becoming unconscious, and just plain out not having consiousness. There is a fundamental difference bud. 
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"“Nevertheless, we no longer view fetal pain (as a core, immediate, sensation) in a gestational window of 12–24 weeks as impossible based on the neuroscience.”
The review points out that a fetus may not experience pain in the same way as an adult, but does indeed experience pain as a real sensation, and that this pain experience has moral implications."

In other words, they are assuming that the fetus feels pain... by redefining pain in order to fit with the sensations that they may feel 

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@fauxlaw
A fetus cannot feel pain, they are ony reacting to stimuli.  A heel prick from a needle used for amniocentesis, for example, can result in the fetus recoiling, much as an adult would to a painful pinprick.
Studies have shown, however, that the recoil is more of a reflex controlled by the “lower brain” (which is involved with more base functions like breathing than with consciousness) or the spinal cord and does not necessarily reflect an experience of pain. In fact, the same response can be seen in anencephalic infants, who are born missing large parts of the brain. As the JAMA review explains: “[F]lexion withdrawal from tactile stimuli is a noncortical spinal reflex exhibited by infants with anencephaly and by individuals in a persistent vegetative state who lack cortical function.”
Put another way, the experience of pain is different from what is known as nociception. Nociception refers to the body’s ability to perceive harm — this can be achieved below the level of consciousness, as with reflexes. A paper published in 2001 in the journal Bioethics explains the difference: “[W]hile nociception is neural activity, pain is an unpleasant feeling. It follows that while pain requires some level of consciousness, nociception does not.”
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@Theweakeredge
in a gestational window of 12–24 weeks
Yes, within that range. I'm talking about beyond that gestation range. Gestation ends at birth, and that can be full term of 37 weeks, when fetal consciousness is demonstrated without altering the definition of pain. Bud.
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Same to you as Edge. You're talking pre-24 weeks of gestation. I am talking after. That's the difference, and you both refuse to go to end-of-term, or even a few weeks before 37 weeks [full term]. I've cited that at 30 weeks, consciousness and sensation of pain as is defined for a post-natal condition is demonstrated.
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@fauxlaw
Um FLRW was talking about gestation in general - the "12-24" months wasn't the main point of that - it was that the "sensation/and/or/stimuli to pain" doesn't necessarily mean they can feel pain. That was the point of FLRW's post...
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And my point is that between 24 weeks and 30 weeks, FLRW and you are no longer correct.
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@fauxlaw
Again - FLRW's and mines points are about GESTATION IN GENERAL - as in you are incorrect - FLRW's post was a direct rebuttal to your claim regarding fetus's between 24-30 weeks ability to feel pain - that was what that response is in reply to, directly. 
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@Theweakeredge
Why don't you let FLRW speak for themself?
As for you, you're engaging grammatical quibbling, and you know it. Gestation generally? Seems my earlier sources you're throwing back at me are gestation specific, as I have been. 
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@fauxlaw
A fetus cannot feel pain, they are ony reacting to stimuli.  A heel prick from a needle used for amniocentesis, for example, can result in the fetus recoiling, much as an adult would to a painful pinprick.
Studies have shown, however, that the recoil is more of a reflex controlled by the “lower brain” (which is involved with more base functions like breathing than with consciousness) or the spinal cord and does not necessarily reflect an experience of pain. In fact, the same response can be seen in anencephalic infants, who are born missing large parts of the brain. As the JAMA review explains: “[F]lexion withdrawal from tactile stimuli is a noncortical spinal reflex exhibited by infants with anencephaly and by individuals in a persistent vegetative state who lack cortical function.”
Put another way, the experience of pain is different from what is known as nociception. Nociception refers to the body’s ability to perceive harm — this can be achieved below the level of consciousness, as with reflexes. A paper published in 2001 in the journal Bioethics explains the difference: “[W]hile nociception is neural activity, pain is an unpleasant feeling. It follows that while pain requires some level of consciousness, nociception does not.”
This is what he said for himself, that is what I related