Um.... yes - slavery was fundamentally a capitalistic venture, it was a way to have labour for free drastically increasing profit margins.
Slavery wasn't fundamentally capitalistic. Chattel slavery was informed primarily by legal recognition and legal enforcement. Ironically enough, one of the first legal cases which established chattel Slavery, at least here in the United States, was instigated by a so-called "black" man (Anthony Johnson I believe) who served as plaintiff in a dispute with an indentured servant, who lost the case and became a slave. Not to mention, the government was also taxing imports on slaves.
Again, the issues with Slavery wasn't the commerce it generated.
And trading stock helps facilitate new goods and products, oh look how the competition helps increase the quality of goods... not - a majority of any profits derived from stock trading is taken as personal profit, the meandering stuff used in actual development might as well be the light bulb industry (constantly decreasing in quality)
Give an example.
Did... you seriously just ask that question? "what industries become monopolies in capitalism?" I'm not designing that one with a response - well - not a sentence response - just a name: Rockafeller.
So, Standard Oil? Standard Oil had over 150 competitors before the Government forced its dissolution. Standard Oil by no description was a "monopoly." It just out-competed its competitors.
Because worker unions want better working conditions, more pay, etc - all of which take from the bottom line of profit, something pure capitalism is against.
Please explain how better working conditions, more pay, etc necessarily all take from the bottom line of profit.
Does a worker who makes, grows, whatever, some good get all of the pay for the full worth of that thing? I.e - does a McDonald employee get paid for every burger they make? Well no - because its not really a labour system - fundamentally speaking - you aren't paying workers what they make... literally.
So Marx's labor theory of value? So it isn't the commerce generated by a composite of subjective values in a particular market that determines price, but it's the "surplus value" imbued by the labor in spite of the fact that workers contract to sell their labor at predetermined wage? Hiring capital, employing equipment, dissemination, advertising, and most of all the consumer's preferences has nothing to do with it?
How do you gauge one's "earnings" of wealth? Um... how much did that person tangibly contribute to society? Like, actually contribute?
So let's say for example if I fix up of some junkers and sell them for a pretty penny, I would not have "earned" my compensation because I did not "tangibly contribute to society"?
Funny that argument there - did you know that was the exact same argument people used against there being a minimum wage?
Yes. The minimum wage should be eliminated.
Do you know what the easy solution there is bud? Companies literally have to pay 15 dollars at a minimum, that just means rising the amount they pay - do you think that thousands of companies are just going to be "okay then, if you won't work for 7:50, then you won't work at all!" of course freaken' not - that would be incredibly stupid.
No, not necessarily stupid. It's cost analysis. If their productivity doesn't generate commerce at any more than $7.50 an hour, then it's prudent to demand one work at $7.50 with the prospect of unemployment, underemployment, or disemployment. It's stupid to pay one more than what their labor is worth.
The problem with your argument is that its purely theoretical...ya know how i know that?
Well, it is Economics.
Because we've seen it FAIL BEFORE.
Reference?