but don’t seem to care much about whether it is even a real thing
Maybe you missed the part above where I said:
As evidence of this, they cite misleading figures that suggest that non-congruent outcomes among particular (and largely non-representative) samples of non-majority ethnic groups have it worse than equally non-representative samples of majority ethnic groups.
In reality, to the extent that any such differences appear in the data (and they do in certain aspects, like criminal sentencing for example); there is essentially no evidence that could even be misinterpreted to support the proposition that race (or ethnicity) explains these differences, much less causes them. Further, once you broaden the scope of whatever you're looking at (basically no matter what it is that you're focusing on), at least before 2020 things tended to be looking better compared to, for example, criminal sentencing disparities in the 1930s-1970s. This should be unsurprising, given that as a society racism is regarded as intolerable by basically everyone with any sense, and the cultural norms associated with discriminating based on race have shifted.
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I am not saying that there were never systemic issues that disproportionately adversely affected black people, if there was any question. Three strikes laws absolutely did, drug sentencing practices relevant to crack certainly did and so called crime reform at the behest of the 1990s democrats did more damage than anything else. But to call these evidence of systemic racism is stupid and myopic. What it suggests is that whenever the government tries to implement policies like this, it makes things far worse than better. Also, sentencing disparities increased after the 94 crime bill.
See post 20.
I am not disputing outcome inequity; I literally said it was reflected in the data, and provided several examples of where in particular it is found. You will be hard pressed to find a single axiom on which "equity" is demonstrated between any majority and non-majority group in any context, anywhere in the United States or the world in general.
What we are talking about is what non-equitable outcomes actually mean; how do we explain them? Are they evidence of "institutional racism" and "white privilege" or are they something else? See what I said in post 26:
What we are really talking about here is how inequality of outcome can be normatively explained. So, what's the story we're telling ourselves to explain why some groups seem to succeed while other groups do not. It's also worth considering whether the black-white duality is really the best. Because no matter how you shake the data, there is always at least one (and often three or more) groups that out-perform whites as a group (and have for decades).
Again, so there is absolutely no room for either miscommunication or any further misinterpretation:
I am not saying that there aren't differences across racial groups with respect to outcomes in myriad factors. There is no possible way that what I am saying here can be misinterpreted unless you are engaged in some kind of bad faith here, which I don't think you are.
What I am saying is that those data points do not establish "white privilege" or "institutional racism." So we are talking about what inequitable outcome means, rather than whether there is inequitable outcome.
Do you understand the difference, conceptually, between (1) arguing about the meaning of inequitable outcomes (which assumes, as I have here, that inequitable outcomes exist and can be demonstrated with evidence); and (2) arguing that there are no inequitable outcomes?
Further, do you understand that we are talking about (and I am specifically addressing) the former, rather than the latter?
Having now had at least a second opportunity to review what I said, do you now still hold the position that "but don’t seem to care much about whether [outcome inequity] is even a real thing?