Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?

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SkepticalOne
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@Amoranemix
SkepticalOne is open to anything supported by evidence.

Are you speaking for SkepticalOne now?

...and doing a fine job of it if you ask me!
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@3RU7AL
Not sure how your last statement is relative to any of my previous comments.

And I would suggest that Axiom and ontology are not compatible...And similarly, ontology and fact are not compatible.
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@ludofl3x
God is eternal. He has no beginning, so the premise does not apply to Him. 
Meh, forget it, I don't have the energy to explain special pleading to you. 
I justify the principle of God's existence through the Bible and by the impossibility of the contrary. I also argue from the standpoint of a necessary being, of which you are not that being. Why should I value your thinking on origins??? You have a universe of the gaps. 

Special pleading is an informal fallacy wherein one cites something as an exception to a general or universal principle (without justifying the special exception). This is the application of a double standard. In the classic distinction among material fallacies, cognitive fallacies, and formal fallacies, special pleading most likely falls within the category of a cognitive fallacy, as it would seem to relate to "lip service", rationalization and diversion (abandonment of discussion).


You special plead for the universe causing itself, or that something was before it, or that it is eternal, depending on which stance you take. Where do you ever see something creating itself? There is always a cause for something, right up to the Big Bang. What caused the Big Bang? Where do you find evidence for something beyond the universe that is natural, being responsible for it?  Where is the evidence for that? Where is the evidence that the universe is eternal? How could it be? 
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@3RU7AL
Now I am not saying that the meanings cannot change with use if enough people like the new buzzword or new meanings for the word. When that happens, another definition is added to the word meaning in a dictionary.
I'm ever so glad we can agree on this crucial point.
Yay!
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@zedvictor4
The GOD principle is a logical concept and worthy of consideration....But theistic belief in an unproven, specific deity, is illogical.
I'd go a step further and say that EVEN IFF something like "YHWH" was accepted as an AXIOM (ONTOLOGICAL FACT), that even then, following the supposed teachings of such a thing would be immoral (logically incoherent).

In other words, "YHWH" is a FACT and "The Bible" is 100% TRUE, now what?  Do you want everyone to stop mixing their fabrics and stone all divorcees to death?

And I would suggest that Axiom and ontology are not compatible...And similarly, ontology and fact are not compatible.
Ok, by AXIOM I meant "premise" (treated as FACT) and by ONTOLOGICAL FACT, I meant "premise" (treated as FACT).

Try to imagine.

Just for a brief moment.

That you're convinced "The Bible" is 100% TRUE.

Would you decide to follow ALL the Levitical Laws?  Or would you rather "burn in hell"?

And if you simply "trusted in Jesus" to "save you", would you bother following any of the Levitical Laws?

I mean, apparently it doesn't matter what you actually do, ALL your "sins" will be forgiven if you simply "repent" at some point.

Would believing any of this actually CHANGE how you acted in-real-life?
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@PGA2.0
You special plead for the universe causing itself, or that something was before it, or that it is eternal, depending on which stance you take.
Not necessarily.

The only "correct" answer is, "I don't know".

It is important to maintain a constant awareness of and vigilant respect of our epistemological limits.
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@3RU7AL
Lot's of people seemingly are convinced of the absolute truth of the bible, but how many actually  follow all the Levitical Laws?

I'm not even certain if it is possible to conform simultaneously to both,  the necessities of contemporary society. and the necessities of all biblical requirements.

I would further suggest that save for a few extreme zealots, most theists are probably unwittingly or even knowingly hypocritical.

So...Would believing any of this actually CHANGE how you acted in-real-life?........No.
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@zedvictor4
So...Would believing any of this actually CHANGE how you acted in-real-life?........No.
I tend to agree.
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@SkepticalOne
It is interesting to me that you acknowledge the subjectivity of chess and still look for a 'best' move. Aren't you the same person that claims there can be no 'best' without a fixed (absolute, universal) reference point? You are contradicting yourself.
You are comparing apples to oranges again. How is chess a moral issue unless I cheat? 
I believe you are making a category error. How are evaluations of chess actions and evaluations of life actions fundamentally different...other than you saying so?
I don't think so. Chess is only subjective because of our limited knowledge and ability to think through the best combinations, starting from the first moves through to the last. In some situations, we can think of all the best moves for ourselves when our opponent makes an error or chooses a weak opening, such as the various fool's mate openings or a forced mate later in the game. In those situations, you can name mate in four or five or how many moves because for each move; the opponent is forced to reply in a fixed way to avoid mate happening sooner. Your opponent is forced to respond in a specific way to prolong the inevitable.  If both players played a perfect game (no errors, playing the optimum move every time), it becomes more difficult because of the massive possibilities available. I don't think we are capable of that with some opening, but the tempo would go to White and be countered by Black until White's next move, and so on. Thus, I think such a perfect game, selecting the strongest opening by both, would result in a draw, or win by White, but I cannot say for sure since I don't know anyone who has determined the best, most perfect move for every opposing best and most perfect move. We know that some openings are stronger than others because they develop the pieces faster and pressure the opponent's defences. 

I am saying (comparing apples to oranges) that you are making the categorical error in comparing Chess to morality. Best in Chess is not the same as best regarding morality. I can verify best in chess through the senses/empirically. It could be demonstrated in some situations because the best would lead to an opponent's loss if they did not respond in kind. How do you verify something abstract like the good?  One is a qualitative value (morality), the other a quantitative value (a Chess move). One can be demonstrated through the senses; the other cannot. 

Now, if God exists and has revealed, then we can know the moral best in as much as He has revealed it. And from the Ten Commandments, as well as God disclosing His nature and attributes, we can deduce the good from the bad in other scenarios and from the examples of His interaction in the OT and His physical appearance in the NT. The Bible reveals He created us in His image and likeness (moral beings), so it is possible to know the right, the good. I believe we have an innate sense of the good, but that too can be marred by our subjectivity and ignoring His objective decrees. We choose to be relativists. 
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@PGA2.0

It is interesting to me that you acknowledge the subjectivity of chess and still look for a 'best' move. Aren't you the same person that claims there can be no 'best' without a fixed (absolute, universal) reference point? You are contradicting yourself.
You are comparing apples to oranges again. How is chess a moral issue unless I cheat? 
I believe you are making a category error. How are evaluations of chess actions and evaluations of life actions fundamentally different...other than you saying so?
I don't think so. Chess is only subjective because of our limited knowledge and ability to think through the best combinations, starting from the first moves through to the last. In some situations, we can think of all the best moves for ourselves when our opponent makes an error or chooses a weak opening, such as the various fool's mate openings or a forced mate later in the game. In those situations, you can name mate in four or five or how many moves because for each move; the opponent is forced to reply in a fixed way to avoid mate happening sooner. Your opponent is forced to respond in a specific way to prolong the inevitable.  If both players played a perfect game (no errors, playing the optimum move every time), it becomes more difficult because of the massive possibilities available. I don't think we are capable of that with some opening, but the tempo would go to White and be countered by Black until White's next move, and so on. Thus, I think such a perfect game, selecting the strongest opening by both, would result in a draw, or win by White, but I cannot say for sure since I don't know anyone who has determined the best, most perfect move for every opposing best and most perfect move. We know that some openings are stronger than others because they develop the pieces faster and pressure the opponent's defences. 

I am saying (comparing apples to oranges) that you are making the categorical error in comparing Chess to morality. Best in Chess is not the same as best regarding morality. I can verify best in chess through the senses/empirically. It could be demonstrated in some situations because the best would lead to an opponent's loss if they did not respond in kind. How do you verify something abstract like the good?  One is a qualitative value (morality), the other a quantitative value (a Chess move). One can be demonstrated through the senses; the other cannot. 

Now, if God exists and has revealed, then we can know the moral best in as much as He has revealed it. And from the Ten Commandments, as well as God disclosing His nature and attributes, we can deduce the good from the bad in other scenarios and from the examples of His interaction in the OT and His physical appearance in the NT. The Bible reveals He created us in His image and likeness (moral beings), so it is possible to know the right, the good. I believe we have an innate sense of the good, but that too can be marred by our subjectivity and ignoring His objective decrees. We choose to be relativists
This is the third time you've responded to this post. Why are you trying to reset the conversation?! I mean seriously, if you can't be bothered to follow the conversation (which has moved well past this post), then why should anyone waste their time attempting to carry on with you?


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@Amoranemix
How exactly does the existence of some god(s) solve the problem (if it is a problem) of opinion based morals?
There is a fixed and final reference point with the biblical God. Thus, I have what is necessary for I realize that in and of myself I am not necessary in determining the moral good.
What would prevent people from picking a different fixed, final moral standard, or people picking a changing, subjective moral standard, or people picking your god's moral standard, but changing their mind or disagreeing on what it entails?
Can you demonstrate there is more than one absolute, objective, universal, fixed, eternal standard? If so, let's examine it to see if it has what is necessary and is logically and experiential consistent.

If it is a human standard, let's see how it passes the subjectivity test. 


Thought experiment time!
If your preferred god came to you in a dream and told you to murder your child would it be better to do the"moral" thing or to spare your child and not follow this beings horrible commands?
Why do you think God would do such a thing?
Nice dodge.
Sometimes I need to inquire to find out where a person is coming from. Is he referencing the biblical example of Abraham, or is he referring to another example? If the Abrahamic example, I have a particular response. If some other example, I have another response.

God used the Abrahamic example as a teaching tool. It was symbolic, typological, and prophetic of His own Son - the Lord Jesus Christ. He was testing Abraham and had no intention of Abraham killing His son. God had already promised Abraham that his offspring would be blessed through Isaac. Abraham reasoned that if God wanted him to kill Isaac, He would restore his life. God rewarded Abraham for his faith in believing God. As God restored Christ from death to life, so is the imagery of restoring life to Isaac. The son, Isaac, was born through the promise of God, just like God promised another would be born who would bless and save His people from their sins.

So, there was a reason for God commanding Abraham to sacrifice Isaac, and God provided the sacrifice after Abraham showed he was willing to follow God's decree. Again, the imagery is that God will provide the sacrifice, and the sacrifice for sin was the one time sacrifice of the Son who God again provided. 

For God requiring us to murder children, the Bible specifically forbids it. So, since Scripture is fixed, nothing more can be added necessary for our salvation; we know through His teaching that it is strictly forbidden, and God punished those nations that offered child sacrifices. Such acts were detestable to Him.  



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@Amoranemix
PGA2.0 101 to secularmarlin
Since you say you are an atheist, where do your moral values come from? Are they just made up? If so, by who, and why are they right?
When I trace your starting point back as far as I can reasonably go, to origins, how does existence happen? What causes the 'beginning' if you believe there was one. Next, how does something nonliving become living? Then from what is, how do you get what ought to be?
[a] Where do God's moral values come from? Are they just made up? If so, by who, and why are they right?
[b] From what is, how does your god get to what ought to be?
[a] They are His nature. He is all-knowing and always does what is good, right, and just. 

[b] You misunderstand the is and ought. The natural realm is what is. God is not of this physical realm. He created it. God is a transcendent Spirit, a mindful Being. Morality requires a mind. Rocks, inorganic things that are, don't think, nor can they moralize. There is a gap between those things and us. Our essence, as humans, are both physical and spiritual. Thus, the Bible can say we are made in His image and likeness, with the ability to communicate, reason, know, and love. We also have the innate ability to moralize, to conceive of and judge right and wrong. Without God, we have no fixed ideal or best to compare qualitative values against. Because our knowledge is not exhaustive but limited, we are subjective beings. We don't always know the fact, or what is. Thus, once again, without God, we tend to be relative beings in our moral judgments. As with the physical world, we need a fixed reference point for values that are abstract and non-physical. A revelation God supplies those values.   

PGA2.0 101 to secularmarlin
Likewise, to understand what I mean you must get my meaning not anything you want to make it be or else we have failed to communicate.
You want that communication to fail to promote confusion (the Christian's friend).
What are you talking about, and how does it relate to our discussion. I consider this yet another Ad hominem. Are you suggesting my motive is impure or that I cannot communicate what I mean instead of responding to my point about what is necessary for communication to occur? 
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@PGA2.0
A revelation God supplies those values.
But even people who call themselves, "true Christians" can't seem to agree on what these (fixed standard) "values" entail.
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@Amoranemix
You're putting the cart before the horse.
We can only begin our epistemological exploration right here, within ourselves.
Although we have our reason and logic to work with are we necessary beings? Not if we derive our existence from something or someone else. If that is the case we are contingent beings. Thus, we have to start somewhere else beyond ourselves[46], unless you want to contend that you are all there is and everything is your mind in operation? Alternatively, you are having an imaginary conversation with your ultra ego because you are lonely.
[46] How is that supposed to follow? (No. [a] I am not asking you to repeat all the problems you have identified with reality, nor to repeat the questions you have asked too many times already.)
[a] It was not addressed to you. (^8

What I am saying is that we are contingent, not necessary beings. We, as human beings, owe our existence to something beyond ourselves as humans. It follows that we either come from something that is living or from the material universe. I'm asking 3Bru7al to explain how the latter is possible. Since you raise the concern, I would ask you to. 


We gather data, check it for logical coherence and efficacy.
We (as individuals) are the origin, our individual curiosity is ground zero.
You are not the origin of yourself if you had a beginning. So you have to start somewhere else, besides yourself, even though you are using your mind to reason this out, unless you are all there is. So which is it? Did you begin to exist, and do you owe your existence to something or someone else?
He probably started with his parents in a bedroom. What relevance does that have to morality?
I'm not asking for the immediate cause but the root cause. That is what I have asked all along. The relevance is that either morality arises from non-living matter or a necessary Being(s). If the former, how? If we traced our origins back to the furthest point possible, what would we find? You assume it would be a natural, not a supernatural, explanation because that is the only avenue you have opened yourself to. You reject the biblical God, a revelational God. So, as an atheist/agnostic, I ask how such things are possible. I ask how you make sense of chance happenstance as your supposed maker? I ask, from such a beginning how you get morality, the ought from the is (NIFO)

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@Amoranemix
PGA2.0 119 to fauxlaw
Morality is complicated and there are lots of examples or scenarios of how Israel was to handle the day to day life of Israel under that covenant law. Some of these Old Covenant examples have been adopted into many legal systems and the principles of the Ten Commandments apply in these legal systems. There are laws for murder, stealing, perjury, adultery, built into most (if not all) legal systems. The idea of two or three credible eyewitnesse testimony is a principle still used in courts for proving guilt and innocence. It is where a country deviates from such a rule of law that injustice happens, like in the case of abortion in the USA. The framers of the Consstitution recognized some basic godly principles such as equality under the law for there to be justice.
What evidence can you present that the rejection of group responsibility and inheritance responsibility, as promoted by the Old Testament, causes injustice?
A logical argument that morality needs a best and a necessary revealed being - God - is sufficient in explaining morality. Without Him as the standard, anything can pass off as moral. People call good evil and evil good when there is no fixed reference point. In seeking foreign gods, Israel suffered all kinds of misfortune from poor choices, just like we do when we veer from those Ten Commandments that deal with human relationships. When we don't hold others responsible for injustice, as is happening in Democratic-run cities in the USA, people get hurt. Individuals take the law into their own hands and cause injury. Peaceful protests do not harm others by looting (stealing), killing (murder), deceiving by false narratives (lying), or coveting or destroying what belongs to others. I could present a picture of injustice anywhere in this world where people neglect these relational commandments, which Jesus summed up in two - love God and love your neighbour. Loving your neighbour does not hurt them but looks out for their best interests. If there is no ideal, how would you know what is right? Right in reference to what? 

PGA2.0 137 to 3RU7AL
The funny thing about an atheist is that they make themselves or some other relative, subjective human being the object of worship. They become their own authority on all things or leave that in the hands of their idols, their subjective human gods. They pick and choose who they want to believe in every branch of science, or they take other means such as perhaps an atheistic philosopher instead of a scientist as the guru god.
Apparrently I was mistaken in believing I was an agnostic atheist.
Good for you! What is the difference between an agnostic and an atheist? They both ignore the biblical God and look for subjective reasoning for morality. What do you explain in/about life by appealing to the biblical God? Nothing intentionally, right? Instead, you deny Him His existence. You treat Him as if He does not exist. In that sense, how do you differ from a full-fledged "strong" atheist? 
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@Amoranemix
PGA2.0 144 to 3RU7AL
Again, atheists usually incorporate naturalism in their belief system, if they have done any serious reflection on origins.

If you do not ascribe to God or gods, what is left?[47] It would be a system of belief that looks to nature or matter for the answers in origins. Without personal being there would be no intent, no meaning, no value, no purpose.[48] If you want to space our existence that one step further back you could pose aliens, but if they too are not eternal or almighy then there must be another cause beyond them.[49] Or you could pose the ridiculous and unbelievable that everything comes from nothing.
[47] How about nature? [a] Most of the people I thought were atheists believe in nature.
[47] Precisely! Is that their god, their creator, what they attribute their origin too? Now, the question is, how reasonable is this? No intent, no purpose, no meaning, just indifferent chance happenstance. 

[a] True, what else would they believe in if they deny God or gods [i.e., personal intentional being(s)]?

[48] There are plenty of personal beings.
Are they necessary beings? And atheists deny the existence of God or gods as plausible or real. That would leave them with a purely naturalistic explanation, correct? 

[49] Maybe so, but Christianity would still be false.
Why? 
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@Amoranemix
PGA2.0 157 to 3RU7AL
[ . . . ] Although this thread was not created to debate this but rather which worldview better explains and is justified in answering the question of morality, you have not addressed the question. Here it is again:

Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
[a] I suppose that atheism can be world view if it is considered to be the collection of all worldviews that do not incorporate a deity.
[a] Atheists usually seek to explain everything through natural means. 

[b]  However, many will have different explanations for morality. I think a better question would be whether nature can account for morality and [c] whether adding one or more deities to nature would sufficiently improve one's ability with the worldview to account for morality to warrant the cost of doing so.
[b] That is dealt with in the is/ought problem and the chance happenstance problem. 

[c] Atheism is the denial of God or gods. You are speaking of deism or polytheism as a worldview. 

[d] Nature alone can generate morality through evolution by natural selection. [e] In social animals, morality is advantageous. [f] For humans we more or less expect what we see: varying degrees and kinds of rightness and wickedness, more favouring group-thinking [g] (loyalty is good, treason bad) and of course people contradicting each other.  [h] I am not clear on what extra mystery a deity would explain, nor how, especially the Christian one.
[d] Can it, though? That is a big assumption on your part that needs proof and reason. Go ahead!

[e] Advantageous in what way? For the animal or pack that might starve, it is eat to survive, to hell with the others. The advantage of hunting with others is mitigated by the principle of the strongest individuals survive. 

[f] Kinds of righteousness? Who determines that, and why are they right? Which contrary person? Can two opposing values both be right? That defies common sense and logic. Right loses its identity. Right can mean two opposite things depending on who holds the view. 

[g] Again, loyalty and trust is a biblical principle. 

[h] It explains the best by comparison. There is a permanent, absolute, unchanging moral value for right. 
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@Amoranemix

PGA2.0 
162 to 3RU7AL
[ . . . ] Quantitative values such as length, weight, height, size can bemeasured and we have a fixed system of measurement. I argue we do also with qualitative values, by necessity. As with quantitative values there has to be a best or fixed measure as a comparison.
How would one measure the quality beauty? What is the ultimate, fixed reference for beauty?
Are you speaking of a physical trait or an inner quality? I will address the inner quality. 

Although beauty is not a moral value, I would still argue that its ideal is God. He is again the fixed reference point. What is beautiful comes from God. As humans, we are created in His image and likeness, and when we reflect God's qualities, we reflect what is beautiful, like a kind gesture or giving someone who can't afford it a meal.  

If two tribes have conflicting or opposite views on beauty, then which tribe has the true view ?
Again, it is not a moral issue, and what aspect are you speaking of? For humans, physical beauty is largely in the eye of the beholder. For inner qualities, sometimes evil qualities can appeal to us as beautiful, for we mar what is beautiful and good. That is when the value can turn into a moral issue, IMO. 
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@PGA2.0
Although beauty is not a moral value, I would still argue that its ideal is God. He is again the fixed reference point.
Wait a minute, does this mean that all the most beautiful things in the world are mirror reflections of "YHWH"?
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@Amoranemix
PGA2.0 163 to 3RU7AL
How do you know you commit to God as He is? It is easy to assert such things, but show me some evidence. You see, the Christian God is strongly evidenced. There is 66 writings that in themselves give verification to the reasonableness of His Being.[49] These writings have manyverifications from the world of history and archeology as well that Iassert makes your system weak and not as reasonable or sufficient incomparison.[50] The unity is not of one book but of many that areinternally consistent although often misunderstood.
[49] These are indirect claims by ancient people. Relying on them to support the existence of Yahweh would constitute an appeal to authority fallacy.
It is reasonable/evidential to believe they are direct claims by eyewitnesses as to what they claimed happened concerning Jesus Christ - Yeshua the Messiah, the Anointed One. These eyewitness accounts have been seen as valid by our legal standards in the evidence they presented. They also speak extensively about the OT Mosaic law and its verifiable fulfillment as existing and disappearing in AD 70, which brings in the prophetic argument as additional proof.   

You are guilty of an either/or fallacy/false dilemma. You exclude that these claims can be true because you believe these ancient people cannot tell the truth or are not authorities in the matters they speak of and appeal to. You are working on the assertion that ancient accounts of any kind that are indirect are false instead of looking at each work's merits. There is good evidence that these people were eyewitnesses. You could give such a negative argument for any ancient work based on indirect evidence, but the quality of this work does not suggest it is false. These disciples actually believe that this man - Jesus - existed and that they communed with Him. Their unified collected accounts include many verifiable facts from that time period - people, places, events. There are also various accounts, both biblical and otherwise, that verify these authors went to their deaths proclaiming that Jesus Christ had risen from the dead, as well as believing He was God incarnate. 

You are offering only the one possibility for indirect ancient claims; there is no authority to such claims, and that these people were not experts in what they spoke of.  

An appeal to authority is perfectly valid. An appeal to an inappropriate authority is not. An appeal to an inappropriate authority assumes justification when there is none there, perhaps because the authority is not one in this specific area, or there is no justification the "authority" is actually one. 

[50] Those verifications only verify part of those writings. That some of it is confirmed, does prove all of it.
While this is true, it gives evidence that at least some aspects are trustworthy. When you combined this evidence with other reasoning, God becomes the most reasonable explanation, such as what we are doing here in discussing the moral argument from two different philosophical positions. The Bible speaks of three lines of evidence for the existence of God, 1) the creation/universe, 2) His Word, the Bible/His Son (the living Word), and 3) His Spirit who speaks to the believers' spirit. I have tried to get you to engage in the first, the created order, by speaking of morality. The validity of the Bible is a different topic and so is the experiential evidence.   
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@PGA2.0
You exclude that these claims can be true because you believe these ancient people cannot tell the truth or are not authorities in the matters they speak of and appeal to.
Well, it's not really so much that "they CAN'T be true" as it is that "the claims are unverifiable and NOT logically necessary".

Any assumed validity you lend to "The Bible" must apply equally to other ancient stories (like The Epic of Gilgamesh and The Vedas).

Also, you might enjoy, [LINK]
Amoranemix
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I was soo lazytoday. I haven't read any more posts.

I have discoveredsomething. So I go back a few pages.

No. First takethe guess work out of your argument. Stop telling me what you thinkis immoral and tell me why it is immoral. I've given you mystandard and we can both discuss it because we both agree that thereare humans and that the things we do effect their welfare.
PGA2.0 369
have told youmany times. You do not listen. It is immoral because if offends therighteousness of God. It is wrong if there is an objective standardthat we can measure values against that is fix and best. If not,nothing ultimately matters and morality becomes nothing more thansubjective individual or group preference. Which way do you want tolive? Do you want to live as if there is such a fixed standard andthat right and wrong really matter, or do you want to liveinconsistently, deceiving yourself, pretending that things do matterand there is an actual right and an actual wrong to issues? If youwant to live as though things do matter a worldview devoid of an ultimate, absolute, universal, fixed standard is necessary. [ . . . ]
I may understand what is the cause of your blockage. The problem with your debating style is that you keep repeating the same arguments and claims at nauseum in stead of trying to ascertain why the opponents won'taccept them. So the debate goes nowhere fast, which I imagine suits you well.

You seem to  incorporate into the definition of morality that it requires ultimate, absolute, universal, fixed standard.

The abufistan argument :
When someone says that an absolute, universal, fixed standard is necessary, otherwise all one would have are preferences, one means that without these conditions being met, there would be no morality. The world we observe would appear the same and people may believe that certain behaviour is moral or immoral, but then they would be mistaken. Any behaviour would be amoral, just like preferences in taste or beauty are amoral.


I will take a leap of faith and assume that represents PGA2.0's position to move things along faster.

I will also assume that evolution by natural selection is real. If God is required for the existence of animals, then indeed, God would also be required for the existence of morality, at least on earth.

The abufistan argument is a bad one as long as there is no good definition for morality, as it is a difficult to grasp, abstract concept. The existence of abstract concepts, take for example numbers, are already hard to evaluate when they are clear. Hence to establish whether or not morality exists, we need a definition that allows us to make such assesment.

3RU7AL asked PGA2.0 for a definition in post 12. I have reasked a definition inpost 844 and finally we got one in post post 906. Not only is that gloriously late, but we got several definitions, while we need exactly one.

Here are the three provided in post 906, retrieved from Merriam-Webster's dictionary, that seem most relevant :
2a: a doctrine or system of moral conduct
the basic law which an adequate morality ought to state— Marjorie Grene
b: moralities plural: particular moral principles or rules of conduct
we were all brought up on one of these moralitiesPsychiatry
3: conformity to ideals of right human conduct
admitted the expediency of the law but questioned its morality
4: moral conduct: VIRTUE
morality today involves a responsible relationship toward the laws of the natural world— P.B. Sears

- Definitions 2a and b are problematic as they depend on the attribute 'moral', which is no clearer than 'morality'. Merriam-Webster defines that as function of 'right' and 'wrong'. 'Right' is defined as a function, of 'righteous', 'upright and 'appropriate'. Righteous is defined as function of 'divine law' or 'moral law'. Divine law is a poor base as a definition, as it would assume the existence of a god, while atheists also use the concept of morality in a non-religous context, and a god's existence is not an assumption in this debate. Moral law is useless as a base, as that would create a loop in the chain of definitions.

However, definition 2 is consistent with morality being or consisting of opinions. The problem is that that would refute the abufistan argument a priori.

- Definition 3 has the same problems, but is also consistent with morality being or consisting of opinions. E.g. what is appropriate is decided by society and thus (an amalgam of) opinion(s).

- Definition 4 relies on virtue, for which the most useful definition seems to be 'a beneficial quality or power of a thing'. If no ultimate, absolute, universal, fixed standard is required for something to be beneficial, then the abufistan argument easy to refute.

So, I have not found any definition for morality useful for the abufistan argument. Perhaps PGA2.0 can do better.


I will now defend the position that morality concerns opinions (but not all opinions), also known as subjective truths. (It is the first time I concoct this line of reasoning.) The key reason is :
Without a reference moral standard moral claims cannot be (dis)proven.

Demonstration:
A) Almost any true statement can in principle (i.e. with unlimited resources) be proven and any false statement can in principle be falsified. Exceptions are rare and to my knowledge only exist in mathematics and physics and reasons for the improvability can there be determined. That isto my knowledge not the case with moral claims.
However, theimprovability and unfalsifiability is typical for opinions. The only reason moral claims cannot be (dis)proven is their ambiguity or vagueness, i.e. their meaning is unclear (e.g. by missing a reference standard).

Vague qualitative claims without reference standards are opinions. Whether something is big, green, cold, cheerful or safe, without certain additional information, is is not a stament, but an opinion.

B) For claims with a moral standard : A moral standard is an opinion, by virtue of being chosen. One cannot choose without expressing the opinion that the choice is somehow appropriate.


Morality thus consists of a subset of opinions : those concerning the behaviour (conduct according to the dictionary) (including intentions) of agents. People can have opinions on the behaviour of agents without an ultimate, absolute, universal, fixed standard.

Hence, no ultimate, absolute, universal, fixed standard is necessary for morality.

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@Amoranemix
Without a reference moral standard moral claims cannot be (dis)proven.
Try this,

Imagine for a moment that there is an "objective" "fixed-moral-standard", a "one true and universal good" (OFMSOTAUG) so to speak.

Let's call this AXIOM ONE.

Now, (ONTOLOGICALLY) this OFMSOTAUG is 100% real.

Let that sink-in for another second or two.

NOW the "problem" is, NOBODY KNOWS EXACTLY WHAT THAT OFMSOTAUG TELLS US WE SHOULD ALL BE DOING.

Ok, ok, that makes things a little too problematic.

Let's imagine @PGA2.0 KNOWS THE OFMSOTAUG.

So, as of this moment, @PGA2.0 is our ULTIMATE MORAL TEACHER.

The real question at this point seems to be, "why won't @PGA2.0 tell me what to do????"

pLEASE @PGA2.0, why won't you tell me what to do??

I mean, I know you said "ten (9) commandments + love thy neighbor" but what about EVERYTHNG ELSE??
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@Amoranemix
ATHESIM HAS NOTHING WHATSOEVER TO SAY ABOUT "THE ORIGINS OF LIFE".
PGA2.0 166 to 3RU7AL
Sure it does. Members of such beliefs speak about origins all the time.
What kind of fallacy is that, claiming that when many people who share a (lack of) belief make claims, the (lack of) belief also makes those claims?
Atheism at best excludes some explanations for the origin of life.
Atheism substitutes belief in God for belief in naturalism. I usually identify four to six areas of thinking that incorporate a religious worldview, and atheists believe in all those areas. Those areas of belief include answering such questions as 1) What am I, 2) Who am I, 3) Why am I here, 4) What difference does it make, 5) How do I know, 6) What happens to me when I die? So they show that they have beliefs that are contrary to the Christian beliefs and contrary to God or gods.  Others identify and broaden the scope of a worldview to include more topics, such as the link that provides twelve.

I seldom deal with an atheist who does not include what they believe about origins when asked. 

Here is a quote from the American Humanist Organization,

"We atheists and humanists are on the common ground of nature. We are naturalists in that we share the idea that only natural (as opposed to supernatural) laws and forces operatein the world."

PGA2.0 168 to 3RU7AL
If there is no objective and universal reference point then you do not have right and wrong. You just have 'I like this,' or 'I like that.' 

Morality is a framework that humans use to discern right and wrong but if there is no final measure it is arbitrary, relative, subjective and contingent. How does a shifting system of belief make something right or good? It just forces its views on others.
[a] I don't know what a system of beliefis, but I shall try to answer the question: “How do preferences make something good?” [b] The question assumes that there are preferences that do make something good. I will start from that assumption.
[c] One should ask those with those preferences that claim something is good because of them. [d] Whatever explanation they come up with, according to you, it will be because they like it. [e] Thus, if you are correct, liking something makes it good. Hence, according to you, if preferences make something good, it would be by being liked.
[a] What do you mean by the underlined? 

[b] First, I could find various posts on these threads where atheists have identified morality as moral preferences. They have said there is no objective absolute standard of reference for the good. That raises the question of how they determine the moral good? Since they believe there is no objective source to reference, it boils down to what is liked and disliked. There are a few, like SkepticalOne, who have mentioned they believe morality is objective but have not been able to demonstrate this is true from their belief system. Usually, it comes down to utilitarianism, the greatest "good" for the greatest number; whatever they define that "good" to be. 

[c] Okay, what is your explanation for how good is determined? I believe you have already explained it but I will give you a chance to explain it again. 

[d] That has been the case to date. They like it as the means of determining the good. They think it answers the question. The problem is that different people have opposite opinions on the good. Throughout the world, people have different ideas of the good for the same issue. I ask you, can they all be right? Please answer that.  

[e] Liking something makes it good is not what I believe. I have explained this many times before. I am saying that atheists generally explain the good because they like something, such as 3RU7AL and you have exhibited in posts, such as your example with Hitler and his morality.  

People have different likes. As I pointed out in another post, the Marquis de Sade liked torturing little children. Therefore based on your definition of morality, that would be "good for him." You said as much with Hitler. Thus, you have identified yourself as a moral relativist and based good for Hitler on his preferences. On the other hand, I believe that what Hitler called good or right was a fixed objective evil and wrong, coming from a necessary objective standard to determine this.  
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My zeal took the upper hand again, at least till I reached post 700.

(IFF)youdisagree with the CONSENSUS (THEN) you believe the majority isimmoral (the law is false and corrupt).
PGA2.0 529
What is theactual right? You can't produce one. All you can say is "I likethis view."[112] You are in the same boat as Nazi Germany. [ . . . ]
[112] You are mistaken. Just like Christians, skeptics can also utter nonsense. Skeptics are also able to pretend their morality is somehow true, that they adhere to the morality that is actually right, that they are not in the same boat as the Nazis.
However, skeptics are not inclined to do such things.

(IFF) Ibelieve I am "right" (THEN) that doesn't necessarilymake you "wrong"
PGA2.0 529
Why?
If you were not tied to God, you would already know, as you have already received all the information required to explain that yourself. You even have explained it yourself, for example in post 573 : “Communication only takes place when both parties understand each other. The'author' is not understood until the reader gets his/her meaning(objectively understood). Reading a foreign meaning into the author's statements is not objective but subjective.“ You refuse to apply that understanding to morality, because such explanation does not include God, while your dogma requires God to be in there.
Right and wrong are not necessarily mutually exclusive. Language is conventional. Meaning of right and wrong is decided by people, e.g. by the author. The meaning given to the word 'right' by Bob does not necessarily exclude the meaning given to the word 'wrong' by Alice.
If Bob says : “Gay sex is right”, he may mean : “Gay sex is right according to my moral standard.”
If Alice says : “Gay sex is wrong”, she may mean : “Gay sex is wrong accordingto my moral standard.”
That is why you systematically omit to mention reference standards. That way you can tacitly assume both refer to the same standard, thereby creating, through equivocation, the illusion of a contradiction where there is none.

PGA2.0 529 3RU7AL
What you have isa shifting standard. Good can equal whatever you want it to.[113] YOUdo not have what is necessary for morality. All you have is what ispreferable. How does that make anything right? It does not. If itdoes make something right then Nazi Germany and the killing of oversix million Jews becomes right for anyone who agrees.[114]
[113] That contradicts what you have stated before and indeed, what you stated before is false.
[114] Be careful there. You are at the onset of understanding how the world really works. If you continue like on that path, you may eventually lack the ignorance required for God-belief.

It's exactly thesame as law. Different territories have different laws. It'sexactly the same for people. What's appropriate behavior in front ofyour parents is not always the same as what's considered appropriatebehavior in front of your friends. What's appropriate behavior in onefriend's house is not always what's appropriate behavior at anotherfriends house.
PGA2.0 529
So at one house,it is 'morally' permissible to rape your neighbour for fun???? Atanother, it is 'morally' permissible to kill your neighbour forfun.[114] That is the implication of this stupid moral relativismidea. You throw away justice because justice needs a fixed moralgood, something that is actually so.[115] [ . . . ]
[114] How low did you have to drop your intelligence to misunderstand that those were example behaviours 3RU7AL had in mind, rather than for example whether one has to take off their shoes ?
[115] What if there is no such thing ?

There is ample evidence that people were protecting themselves long before Abraham was ever born.
PGA2.0 534
Sure, but what or who influenced such thinking in the first place is the underlyingissue here.
The first cause that should come to mind is something that exists, like nature.

PGA2.0 428
It is [unchanging], except for the Sabbath Day. Jesus reiterated the Ten Commandments in the NT, so do the apostles.
You just admitted that it changed.  Not universal.  Not unchanging.
PGA2.0 534
Perhaps I should have been more clear. See the [added] wording. IOW's it is the same as spoken of in the OT. The difference is the although the NT believer recognizes the law, or Ten Commandments, are good, Jesus has met the standard of the law on our behalf.
What does that mean, to meet the standard on behalf of someone else ?
Assuming the standard says that stealing is wrong, does that mean that I can decide to take the guilt upon myself for stealing by others ?
The concept of transference of guilt is generally not accepted in modern, civilized societies. How does it follow from the Ten Commandments ?

You start out by saying "NO", but then you go on to explain how it WAS CHANGED.
PGA2.0 539
The covenant was changed in that the OT required the believer or 'people of God' to sacrifice for their sins, for every time they broke the law (summed up in the Ten). In the NT, Jesus establishes a New Covenant in meeting the Law in Himself for the believer, or 'His people.'

So, the covenantchanged, not the Law.
What relevance does the covenant have ? People should (according to you) obey the Law = the Ten Commandments and anything deducable from it because it is the foundation of your morality, but why should anyone care about the changing covenant ?

PGA2.0 565 to SkepticalOne
While atheists can and sometimes do live more morally than many Christians do, from where their worldview starts (their most basic presuppositions), there is no reason they should. Thus, they are inconsistent with their beginning presuppositions (blind, indifferent chance happenstance and meaninglessness).[116] In the 20th-century atheists (consistent with the origin of chance happenstance and meaninglessness) demonstrated just how self-serving and immoral they were in the vast killings of those who did not agree withtheir philosophy.[117]
[116] Those are mistakes on two fronts.
First, not all atheists believe what you want them to believe. Most of them believe in reality. They do not believe in your invisible sky magician, nor in your perversion of their worldview.
Second, even for the weird atheists who have as presuppositions blind, indifferentchance happenstance and meaninglessness, those pressuppositions do not exclude having opinions, like opinions on how agents should try to behave, which is the domain of morality.
Your worldview facilitates making mistakes, which is a sign of deficiency.
[117] Are you holding all atheists responsible for the crimes of some ?

Morality is about the well-being of humans,
Whose well-being?
Hejust told you. The inability to understand the obvious is evidence ofa deficient worldview. You should work on that.

This appeal to a"fixed reference point" has been shown unnecessary in a post you haven't caught up to yet. A compass doesn't use a fixed reference point, yet the world can be successfully navigated with it.
PGA2.0 569
"What is true north?
True north is the direction that points directly towards the geographic North Pole.This is
a fixed point on the Earth’s globe.
True north is a fixed point on the globe. Magnetic north is quite different."

There has to be a true north to reference the magnetic north with. You have the same problem with moral views. There is nothing more than preference unless there is something true to fix morality with. You have to have a 'best' to compare 'good' and 'better' to, or else you have better concerning nothing.[115] Thus, you can never be sure that your'better' is actually so because it is always shifting and changing.[116] [ . . . ]
[114] That supposedly fixed true north is not really fixed, for the earth's axis precesses over a 26.000 year cycle, not to mention that the whole earth moves. In addition, the choice of reference, as well as the name of that reference may change on a whim. It is only a reference by majority. What if a mojority were to dislike the earth's rotation axis as a reference or decided to call the side intersecting Antarctica true north ?
[115] You are mistaken. No best is required, just a standard of quality. Usually a best can be derived from such standard.
[116] Your fallacy of choice is the non-sequitur. That standard needs not befixed. That the standard was different in the past and may be different again in the future, does not prevent using it. People have been using shifting standards all the time in the real world.

Again, atheism is not a moral philosophy.
PGA2.0 569
Atheists, like Christians, hold to moral views that originate somewhere, the way they view the world and universe. Morality is a part of their worldview.[117] They do not see moral values coming from an ultimate being. They try to make themselves that being in question.[118] If there is no ultimate, necessary being, the point of reference is changing.[119] Atheists (like you) sometimes try to attach morality to universals and objective values, but they do not have the means to do so. Christians do.[120] You try to attach morality to 'well-being.' The problem is whose well-being? You say humanities, but who decides for humanity - you?[121]
[117] That would be assuming oughts, opinions or preferences are part of a worldview.
[118] That is poorly formulated, but not completely false.
[119] That is poorly formulated as well, as there is no such thing as 'the point of reference'. In the real world things change, even moral standards.
[120] What are those means required to attach morality to universals and objective values, means that allegedly Christians have, while atheists don't ?
[121] Suppose there are problems associated with well-being. So what ? On top of the problem of unprovable existence, what you try to attach morality to, also has problems. So what ?

...and the tired old argument of the 'vast killings due to atheism'  (in the name of atheism?!) is something that may work in dogmatic echo chambers,but not to any reasoning person. Mao (et al) didn't kill because of atheism - that would be like killing for a-unicornism.  It is a nonsense argument.
PGA2.0 569
[Complaints aboutMao's and Stalin's wicked rules]
What relevance does that have ? Is there any pertinent conclusion that can be drawn from your observations ? Are you going for the group fallacy ? “Mao and Stalin did bad things, therefore atheists are bad.” Are you going for the guilt by association fallacy ? “Mao and Stalin did bad things. Shame on you !” These conclusion are also off topic. On top of that you cannot even demonstrate that their behaviour is objectively immoral. All you can do is share your opinion.
You have accused SkepticalOne of mistaking what is done in the name of Christianity and what Christianity teaches. That does not prevent you from holding atheism responsible for Mao's and Stalin's crimes, even though they did not even act in the name of atheism.
Why is it that you continuously feel the need to diverge into red herrings ? There are some relevant conclusions that you have presented. Unfortunately, they were poorly supported, if at all. Why don't you try to address the issues skeptics have with those on topic arguments ? For example, you could try to improve on your fallacious attempts to demonstrate that the behaviour of Stalin and Mao were really bad. Anyone can claim that they have an ultimate, necessary, absolute, fixed moral standard, but no one can demonstrate it.

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@Amoranemix
That supposedly fixed true north is not really fixed, for the earth's axis precesses over a 26.000 year cycle, not to mention that the whole earth moves.
Good point.

So, iff a "fixed-point" is required, in order to properly answer the question "where were you born", you'd be forced to calculate where exactly the planet earth was, relative to its orbit around the center of the super-massive-black-hole at the center of the milky-way-galaxy at the time of your birth (and additionally the movement of the milky-way-galaxy as a whole, relative to its current position).

In other words, you were born very very very far away in a (most likely) probably empty region of space that is going to be extremely difficult to pin-point (and you'd probably need to devise some sort of novel universal-grid-division of space-time itself (UGDOSTI) in order to reference the precise location of that "fixed-point").

And even this "fixed-point" would be more of a "smudge" or "streak" through several discrete UGDOSTI points because the planet earth didn't simply stop moving between the time you started being born and the time you were actually fully extricated.
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@3RU7AL
I am saying that without a reasoning being who created the universe, the universe is without reason for its existence.
Oh boy.

Is that what you're hung up on?

The teleological fallacy?

You are saying that is a false statement. Explain why. The reasoning behind such a statement (underlined) is self-evident. Reason requires mindful being. If the universe is without a mind behind it, there is no reason for the universe. Why is that fallacious???

In other posts, I am also asking the atheist to explain how something that lacks reason and mind can acquire these things. Please explain how so we can investigate the logic further. 
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@PGA2.0
The reasoning behind such a statement (underlined) is self-evident.
This is what you're implicitly saying,

(IFF) "reasoning" is defined by the (properly functioning) human mind, for example a spider and or a dog does not appear to wield the power of "reason" (THEN) in order for any hypothetical "creator" to be properly considered "reasoning" they must also posses a (properly functioning) human mind as their primary faculty.

FURTHERMORE,

(IFF) any hypothetical "creator" is AXIOMATICALLY considered to be OMNISCIENT, OMNIPOTENT, OMNIPRESENT (THEN) their "mind" (whatever that means) cannot possibly resemble the (properly functioning) human mind.

Humans are defined by their ignorance.

The ONLY function of our prefrontal cortex ("reasoning" mind) is to make speculative predictions about a future of which we are necessarily UNCERTAIN.
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@FLRW
It is from the Book of Numbers which is the fourth book of the Hebrew Bible,
and the fourth of five books of the Jewish Torah. In Numbers 5 the woman has to drink a concoction
that is part water, part dry earth taken from the floor of the sanctuary, and
part an inky residue from a parchment inscribed with a curse. The imprecation
is to the effect that if she is guilty of adultery her belly will swell and her thigh
will rot, referring, almost certainly, to her uterus and genital area. By and large,
critics and translators assume that she is pregnant and that
the effect of the curse is to cause a miscarriage in the guilty. Num 5:28 is explicitly
about the innocent: “She shall be free, and retain seed,” that is, her conscience
being clear, she will carry her child to term.
That is a wrong assumption. The word for pregnancy is not mentioned here, and this is not about abortion but adultery. The context is on marital unfaithfulness. Consider the fuller context here:

The Adultery Test
11 Then the Lord spoke to Moses, saying, 12 “Speak to the sons of Israel and say to them, ‘If any man’s wife goes astray and is unfaithful to him, 13 and a man has sexual relations with her and it is hidden from the eyes of her husband and she remains undiscovered, although she has defiled herself, and there is no witness against her and she has not been caught in the act, 14 [f]if [g]an attitude of jealousy comes over him and he is jealous of his wife when she has defiled herself, or if [h]an attitude of jealousy comes over him and he is jealous of his wife when she has not defiled herself, 15 the man shall then bring his wife to the priest, and shall bring as [i]an offering for her a tenth of an [j]ephah of barley meal; he shall not pour oil on it nor put frankincense on it, because it is a grain offering of jealousy, a grain offering of reminder, a reminder of wrongdoing.
16 ‘Then the priest shall bring her forward and have her stand before the Lord, 17 and the priest shall take holy water in an earthenware container; and [k]he shall take some of the dust that is on the floor of the tabernacle and put it in the water. 18 The priest shall then have the woman stand before the Lord and let down the hair of the woman’s head, and place the grain offering of reminder [l]in her hands, that is, the grain offering of jealousy; and in the hand of the priest is to be the water of bitterness that brings a curse. 19 And the priest shall have her take an oath and shall say to the woman, “If no man has had sexual relations with you and if you have not gone astray into uncleanness, as you are under the authority of your husband, be [m]immune to this water of bitterness that brings a curse; 20 if, however, you have gone astray, though under the authority of your husband, and if you have defiled yourself and a man other than your husband has had sexual intercourse with you” 21 (then the priest shall have the woman swear with the oath of the curse, and the priest shall say to the woman), “may the Lord make you a curse and an oath among your people by the Lord’s making your thigh [n]shriveled and your [o]belly swollen; 22 and this water that brings a curse shall go into your [p]stomach, to make your belly swell up and your thigh [q]shrivel.” And the woman shall say, “Amen, Amen.”
23 ‘The priest shall then write these curses on a scroll, and he shall [r]wash them off into the water of bitterness. 24 Then he shall make the woman drink the water of bitterness that brings a curse, so that the water which brings a curse will go into her [s]and cause bitterness. 25 And the priest shall take the grain offering of jealousy from the woman’s hand, and he shall wave the grain offering before the Lord and bring it to the altar; 26 and the priest shall take a handful of the grain offering as its reminder offering and offer it up in smoke on the altar, and afterward he shall make the woman drink the water. 27 When he has made her drink the water, then it will come about, if she has defiled herself and has been unfaithful to her husband, that the water which brings a curse will go into her [t]and cause bitterness, and her belly will swell up and her thigh will [u]shrivel, and the woman will become a curse among her people. 28 But if the woman has not defiled herself and is clean, she will be [v]immune and conceive [w]children.
29 ‘This is the law of jealousy: when a wife, who is under the authority of her husband, goes astray and defiles herself, 30 or when [x]an attitude of jealousy comes over a man and he is jealous of his wife, he shall then have the woman stand before the Lord, and the priest shall apply all of this law to her. 31 The man, moreover, will be free of [y]guilt, but that woman shall bear the consequences of her [z]guilt.’”

Notice the heading is "The Adultery Test," not "The Pregnancy or Abortion Test." 

So, this was a test for the suspicion of adultery, not to do with abortion or pregnancy. If the woman were found guilty, she would be barren for lying to her husband and the priest (more directly, the punishment was for breaking God's laws) and doing wrong. It has nothing to do with abortion. Glenn Miller, in refuting the exact same claim by someone else wrote this, 

"...neither pregnancy nor abortion are in view in the passage-counter to your entire position!"


PGA2.0
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@FLRW
So, somehow organic molecules happen from inorganic matter 
Methane, water, hydrogen, and ammonia, these were the prominent elements that made up the early earth, and are thought to be one of the key requirements for abiogenesis. The Miller-Urey experiment reduced a controlled environment to these exclusive ingredients, then shot electric sparks through the mixture. The experiment is hailed for its results as it produced amino acids and other “organic” compounds. This essentially proved that in the right conditions, by chance alone, the building blocks for proteins could come into existence. While this experiment did not create life, it took a very unique set of environmental requirements and proved that components of life could naturally occur.
Louis Pasteur created doubts on spontaneous generation/abiogenesis, some arguing he disproved the theory, at least as it was thought of during his era. Now for the Miller-Urey experiment. First, the environment was CONTROLLED. There was an agency there that directed the experiment. The thought went into it as to what ingredients were present to create such desired results and those with the notion that we can determine the distant past working in the present (i.e., the present is the KEY to the past in that the present is all we have to work from). Thus, there are many assumptions as to what the past entailed and exactly what ingredients were present. Some have identified the experiment's flaws, like whether oxygen (21% of the atmosphere of the current earth) was present (also water - H2O), which they believe would destroy the other organic molecules, along with the UV sunlight. Various scientists have objections to the chemical composition suppositions; for instance, Dr. David Deamer believes "a number of geochemical studies showed that significant amounts of free oxygen were also present even before the advent of plant life, probably as the result of the photo-dissociation of water vapor" - not methane, ammonia, and hydrogen. Jon Cohen (Science) is another of many dissenters regarding the Miller and Urey experiment and the early earth's atmosphere. Not only this, amino acids as the "building blocks" of proteins have to be present in the right sequence/combination and that does not even produce life. Then you get into the biological complexity of single-celled organisms and what is necessary there.