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@SkepticalOne
The fact that it happened does not lend credence to an early or late date for the [...] Olivet Discourse - SKEP1Yes, it does lend credence to an early date. - ME
How so? - SKEP1
We don't have any early records/data to show your claims are true. Show me them.
The internal evidence of the Bible gives credence to an early date. I laid a brief outline out in the last post.
I'm offering you to put forth evidence if you think my claims are unreasonable - ME
I'm offering challenge to your claims. I do not need to provide evidence to do this. - SKEP1
It is always the same theme with you guys. You make wild, unsubstantiated assertions and charges, then leave the entire burden of proof on the Christian. I already made the topic of discussion the reasonableness and logic of prophecy. That is a two-way street since you are making claims too. I set the ball in motion by providing the content I was speaking about, Matthew 24, Mark 13, Luke 21, and Revelation, in regard to the Olivet Discourse. I put forth the notion that they focused on the destruction of Jerusalem, which happened in AD 70. Then you charged/asserted, without any evidence, that these prophecies were written into the gospels after the fact. So, you need to support your allegations IF YOU WANT TO refute my claim of prophecy as reasonable and logical.
Give me early evidence that what you say is reasonable (and don't
linkwarzme - i.e., provide a whole array of links without the context that you want me to glean from them. I don't want to get bombasted by the information I have to sift through for hours on end to get your point. Outline the specific point first from any link)
I will have to give you a number of OT passages that tell the reader otherwise - ME
Daniel was written written in the 2nd century BC, and the "prophecy" it records is actually history. It is also thought Daniel was not speaking of some distant future but of his own. As to the passage from Deuteronomy, it speaks of "towns" (plural). I fail to see how this can be the temple (singular). It seems to me, this passage tells believers they can not get away from the wrath of god (not in the city not in the country) and has nothing to do with 70AD.
Again, no support for your claims.
Who said that?
What evidence do you have?
If Daniel had written in the 2nd century BC, why would Daniel insert the decree to rebuild a city that had already been rebuilt centuries earlier? It is not reasonable. It makes no sense. Why would he put in specific occurrences that would have to be fulfilled and that find fulfillment in AD 70, and these centuries before the destruction?
How could a Messiah come to a covenantal people (i.e., Daniel's people), as prophesied, when after AD 70 these people no longer have a covenant relationship as specified in the Law of Moses? All these things, and many others, you fail to take into account. So, let's see who your "scholars" are, how early from the biblical times they assert their viewpoint on history or DO YOU HAVE ACTUAL STATED, WRITTEN, EVIDENCE that Daniel was written in the second century.
You see, you work on the assumption that prophecy in these OT books was written in after the fact once again, without any evidence.
How is that reasonable? HOW?
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Regarding Deuteronomy, towns would include Jerusalem. If you read the Olivet discourse it has many of the themes from Deuteronomy. I can demonstrate this both by comparing the curses of Deuteronomy to the Olivet Discourse, as well as via the writings of Josephus. I can also discuss it in relation to the sevenfold curses in Revelation.
16 “Cursed shall you be in the city, and cursed shall you be in the country...until you are destroyed and until you perish quickly, on account of the evil of your deeds, because you have forsaken Me.