Is Christian nationalism un-American?

Author: SkepticalOne

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@keithprosser
It's hard to tell all the social norms surrounding slavery and how 'bad' it was to be a slave.  No dout there were good and bad msaters everywhere.  I note this law in Hamurrabis code:

 176. And if a slave of the palace or a slave of the freeman take the daughter of a man (gentleman); and if, when he takes her, she enter into the house of the slave of the palace or the slave of the freeman with the dowry of her father's house; if from the time that they join hands, they build a house and acquire property; and if later on the slave of the palace or the slave of the freeman die, the daughter of the man shall receive her dowry, and they shall divide into two parts whatever her husband and she had acquired from the time they joined hands; the owner of the slave shall receive one-half and the daughter of the man shall receive one-half for her children.

Cleaely male slaves were permitted to marry the daughters of free men.  That implies that slaves were not dehumanised.  Nor was slavery always permanent: "117. If a man be in debt and sell his wife, son or daughter, or bind them over to service, for three years they shall work in the house of their purchaser of master; in the fourth year they shall be given their freedom."

I don't know if a slave was better of in Babylon or Israel.. it probably depended on the master becuase the rules (even if they ere always followed which is doubtful) aren't substantially different.   In all probability most slaves in the AME were much better off than the planation slaves in the ultra-Christian ante-bellum Southern states of America.



But all you did was reiterate the similarities.

Again, yes, there were similarities. There's similarities even in recent history with wartime practices. The American soldiers taking Japanese wives during WWII. Of course that was promoted as a rescue of women against an oppressive male-centric society, but same principle. The women may not have been forced, but were lured into promises of a better life.

I think you're mixing up the idea that any given master could be a task master, with the actual laws prohibiting abuse. And that's not at all what I'm talking about. To put some light into this idea, who's better off, a woman living in the U.S. or Britain? Or a woman living in male-centric Iran?

We would more likely say one living in the U.S. or Britain. However, if a woman in Iran had a decent spouse, and was relatively high on the social ladder, her life could be immeasurably better than an American or British woman living in the freest parts of the world who is being stalked and terrorized by a jealous husband, former husband, boyfriend, co-worker, neighbor, etc.

In other words, yes, an Israelite owner of a servant could be potentially worse than any Egyptian slave master. But this is why these laws were in place. There was no guarantee that any one individual will have a natural humanitarian tendency.

Are you actually claiming there's no significant difference between the treatment of slaves between Israel and the rest of the NME?


I think it's obvious that the Hebrew's laws are not divine revelations but entirely typical of the norms of the age. How could it be anyhthing else becauase there are no gods!
Replace gods with creator. Can you make that very same statement?
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@RoderickSpode
Are you actually claiming there's no significant difference between the treatment of slaves between Israel and the rest of the NME?
How much difference does it take to make it 'significant'?  From what I've read about Egyptian, Hityite and Baylonian slavery laws and practice there isn't much diference.   So I suppose I do claim there is no significant difference.

A very early condemnation of slavery is found on the Cyrus Cylinder from the 6th century BC.  The Persian ing Cyrus the Great decreed:
"I prevent slavery and my governors and
subordinates are obliged to prohibit exchanging men and women as slaves within their own
ruling domains. Such a traditions should be exterminated the world over.”

The Hebrews had no monoply on the moral,high ground about slavery!.



SkepticalOne
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@RoderickSpode
Exodus 21:16
He who kidnaps a man and sells him, or if he is found in his hand, shall surelybe put to death.

Pretty serious. Wouldn't you say?

Or do you not think this verse applies to chattel slavery, which generally involves involuntary abduction?
Chattel slavery is not prohibited by this verse. It does nothing to stop a Hebrew from buying a slave from a foreign kidnapper. 
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@RoderickSpode
What is evident is that a foreign servant can leave.
No, Leviticus explicitly states foreign slaves can be kept permanently...as in... forever [LINK].

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@RoderickSpode
The treatment of slaves in the biblical times of the Israelites is no different to the treatment of any nation anywhere in the world (read China), it's obvious that no fictional god decreed what the bible claims and even more obvious that it doesn't come from a "real" god lol.
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@keithprosser
How much difference does it take to make it 'significant'?  From what I've read about Egyptian, Hityite and Baylonian slavery laws and practice there isn't much diference.   So I suppose I do claim there is no significant difference.

A very early condemnation of slavery is found on the Cyrus Cylinder from the 6th century BC.  The Persian ing Cyrus the Great decreed:
"I prevent slavery and my governors and
subordinates are obliged to prohibit exchanging men and women as slaves within their own
ruling domains. Such a traditions should be exterminated the world over.”

The Hebrews had no monoply on the moral,high ground about slavery!
I think part of the problem is your idea that Hebrews (and Christianity) think they have a monopoly on higher ground morality.

A couple of biblical texts dismiss this idea (if one should ever obtain such an idea from reading scripture). The parable of the Good Samaritan is one example. This one, albeit a parable, revealed that a gentile could easily practice true religion as well as anyone. The example (Samaritan) used in the parable was meant to show this idea of greater Hebrew morality false to religious Jews.

The other would be Cornelius the Centurion, a non-Christian. The Bible actually said this man was a good man (relative to mankind). And if the Bible says some one person was good, they were definitely good. But this was said about a man who wasn't a believer yet.

It doesn't matter if some other nations were humanitarian as Israel, or even more. A revelation doesn't necessarily mean a message no one else knows about, or practices. But there is most definitely significant differences in the Israelite practice of servitude. The allowance for a runaway servant to remain free from their oppressor would be one significant difference. There may have been other nations with the same law, but probably with most, the idea was unheard of. Also, the idea of a foreigner getting wealthy, becoming a successful citizen, and even owning a (Hebrew....of all people) servant was unheard of in probably most NME nations.

An excerpt from the book A History of Ancient Near Eastern Law (2 vols) by Raymond Westbrook.

Quote reference Hans Gustav Guterbock.

"Guterbock refers to 'slaves in the strict sense,' apparently referring to chattel slaves such as those of classical antiquity. This characterization may have been valid for house slaves whose master could treat them as he wished when they were at fault,but it is less suitable when they were capable of owning property and could pay betrothal money or fines. The meaning 'servant' seems more appropriate, or perhaps the designation 'semi-free' .It comprises every person who is subject to orders or dependent on another but nonetheless has a certain independence within his own sphere of active."

I think most people would agree that the term slavery is not easy to define, therefore puzzling as to how so many people are literally demanding that slavery in the Bible means chattel slavery.

Reminds me of those old western movies where a lynch mob gets restless, and wants to hang someone not yet proven to be guilty.

From Encyclopedia of Cultural Anthropology (4 vols), David Levinson and Melvin Ember (eds), Henry Holt:1996

"Scholars do not agree on a definition of "slavery." The term has been used at various times for a wide range of institutions, including plantation slavery, forced labor, the drudgery of factories and sweatshops, child labor, semi voluntary prostitution, bride-pricemarriage, child adoption for payment, and paid-for surrogate motherhood.Somewhere within this range, the literal meaning of "slavery" shifts into metaphorical meaning, but it is not entirely clear at what point. Asimilar problem arises when we look at other cultures. The reason is that the term "Slavery" is evocative rather than analytical, calling to mind a loose bundle of diagnostic features.These features are mainly derived from the most recent direct Western experience with slavery, that of the southern United States, the Caribbean, and Latin America. The present Western image of slavery has been haphazardly constructed out of the representations of that experience in nineteenth-century abolitionist literature, and later novels, textbooks, and films...From a global cross-cultural and historical perspective, however, New World slavery was a unique conjunction of features...In brief, most varieties of slavery did not exhibit the three elements that were dominant in the New World: slaves as property and commodities; their use exclusively as labor; and their lack of freedom..."




RoderickSpode
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@SkepticalOne
What is evident is that a foreign servant can leave.
No, Leviticus explicitly states foreign slaves can be kept permanently...as in... forever [LINK].
Yeah, but this is true with Israelite slaves. They can be kept permanently as well.
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@RoderickSpode
Yeah, but this is true with Israelite slaves. They can be kept permanently as well.
Do you consider this a wrong or do you have a justification to make it good?

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@RoderickSpode
What is evident is that a foreign servant can leave.
No, Leviticus explicitly states foreign slaves can be kept permanently...as in... forever [LINK].
Yeah, but this is true with Israelite slaves. They can be kept permanently as well.
I thought you were only allowed to keep an Israelite slave for six or seven years, then he gets to decide if he wants to leave or stay on as a permanent slave. Were foreign slaves given this choice?
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@RoderickSpode
What is evident is that a foreign servant can leave.
No, Leviticus explicitly states foreign slaves can be kept permanently...as in... forever[LINK].
Yeah, but this is true with Israelite slaves. They can be kept permanently as well.

It is true foreign slaves were permanent slaves regardless of their wishes and Israelites slaves only in a very specific situation according to their desire. These are not analogous circumstances in the least.
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@RoderickSpode
Replace gods with creator. Can you make that very same statement?
You can give your human created god any human created name you want, it doesn't make it exist in reality.


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@RoderickSpode
Are you suggesting that "Biblical Slavery" = "Independent Contract Labor"?
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@Castin
I thought you were only allowed to keep an Israelite slave for six or seven years, then he gets to decide if he wants to leave or stay on as a permanent slave. Were foreign slaves given this choice?
Well, actually the reason why an Israelite could have at times kept an Israelite servant for life would be the decision of the servant up for release.

Exodus 21:5-6


5But if the servant declares, ‘I love my master and my wife and children; I do not want to go free,’ 6then his master is to bring him before the judges.And he shall take him to the door or doorpost and pierce his ear with an awl. Then he shall serve his master for life.

What S1 believes is that when an Israelite took in a runaway foreign slave, he would not have taken him in if the slave escaped from a fellow Israelite. The problem is that the idea contradicts a number of scriptures that make it clear that they were not to abuse foreigners. Pretty much period.

The potential problem when someone doesn't believe in God is that they assume the authors in the Bible have created scripture in their own minds. Therefore, there must be a catch to any Biblical command stressing peaceful, fair, charitable treatment of others...including, or especially foreigners. Basically because of human nature. You know the phrase looking for the good in the bad? (Or something like that.) Well, sometimes some people look for the bad in the good. This would be a good example. It complicates things even more when, they're convinced there has to be evil in scripture. So when they see a verse stressing respect for brethren in the same sentence as referring to foreign slaves, or a verse that states an Israelite may purchase a foreign slave and keep him for life, they believe they found that evil that they perceived must be there. That catch.

Imagine a Canaanite slave ran away from his master, seeking refuge from the Israelites. If the Israelites return him, he's a gonner. So due to Hebrew law, he takes the slave into his home. However, he makes him a slave in the harshest sense of the word. So the slave runs away to the house of a different Israelite. According to people who believe the scripture referring to harboring a runaway foreign slave only applies to slaves who ran away from foreign masters, that person would refuse to take the slave in because he's not obligated. Or, not permitted to. For one, the forcing of the slave to remain with the abusive Israelite would actually be considered kidnapping which was a very serious crime. And again, it violated their law against mistreatment of foreigners anyway.

The authors were just not thinking about 21st century political correctness. They didn't know they had to word everything properly so as not to mislead us folks way here in the future. And one insensitive to 21st century thought slip up would render them evil. When they talked about how an Israelite could if he wanted (Obviously wasn't mandatory) keep a foreign servant for life, they I believe were speaking in the positive so to speak that there's mutual agreement between a foreigner servant and the Israelite master. Just like between the Israelite master and servant. 

But could a foreign servant leave their master? I think if we get over the idea that a foreign slave would abhor being a servant in a wealthy house (It could only be a wealthy person making it probably fairly rare), as opposed to living a life of possible horrific misery, then it may not be so hard to believe. They could leave if they were abused (in spite of what some think), and could become wealthy. If they became wealthy they obviously wouldn't be a servant anymore.



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@TheRealNihilist
If you read my last post to Castin, I think I more or less addressed this. If not, let me know.
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@SkepticalOne
I think they are, but if you would read my post to Castin, it may shed more light on my view.
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@3RU7AL
No. At least I don't think so. Why would you think that?
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@RoderickSpode
So can we agree having slaves is a bad thing?

Also, servants masters are bad for having human property? 
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@RoderickSpode
No. At least I don't think so. Why would you think that?
Because of your earlier comparison to soldiers.
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@RoderickSpode
It is true foreign slaves were permanent slaves regardless of their wishes and Israelites slaves only in a very specific situation according to their desire. These are not analogous circumstances in the least

I think they are, but if you would read my post to Castin, it may shed more light on my view.
I believe I understand your view fairly well. Please correct any mistakes: You are against chattel slavery. You oppose sexual slavery. You find beating slaves without punishment wrong.

Unfortunately for you, these are all expressly endorsed by the Bible and not to be confused with the indentured servitude available exclusively to Israelites.
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Public service announcement: if you believe there is no chattel slavery in the Bible...READ YOUR BIBLE.
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@Snoopy
The problem is maintaining a relationship with limitations upon the federal government, and also limitations upon the several states, which share sovereignty.  
What do you believe the difference is between the Conservative and Liberal approaches to this "problem"?

It can be problematic that people may impose policy through the federal government onto other states opposed to that policy, and this is a widespread issue.  The idea that this is justified by the fact that representatives are democratically elected is wrong. 
What do you believe the difference is between the Conservative and Liberal approaches to this "problem"?

Plus there's Gerrymandering and general integrity of the process.
What do you believe the difference is between the Conservative and Liberal approaches to this "problem"? [LINK]

Nobody wants to abolish the rule of law.
Eh, I don't care if they want to or not.  Its a constant problem.
What do you believe the difference is between the Conservative and Liberal approaches to this "problem"?

Nobody wants to abolish property rights.
Some people have a way of thinking that is irrespective of property rights, more along the lines of property privileges.  For example, should something be banned, I the property rights of that thing which is already produced and legally held ought to be respected.  I generally don't believe in confiscating private property and transferring to another private entity, under a pretense of "social justice", economic reasons etc...  Disputes over land use are another issue of concern for me.
What do you believe the difference is between the Conservative and Liberal approaches to this "problem"?
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@3RU7AL
I'm not aware of any ideological differences on those matters, more so pertaining to institutional integrity in the United States.
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@Snoopy
I'm not aware of any ideological differences on those matters, more so pertaining to institutional integrity in the United States.
Do you hold any ideals that are exclusively Conservative?
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@TheRealNihilist
So can we agree having slaves is a bad thing?
Yes.



Also, servants masters are bad for having human property?


Depends on what you mean. The argument against biblical slavery is owning another human being. So if that's the case, what about the (American) military and prisons?

What about the 7 year voluntary servitude scenario laid out for an Israelite? They were given a choice between serving (and being owned) for 7 years to pay off damages or an act of theft, or go to prison (where they will also be owned).

People seem to have different levels of what is acceptable ownership of another human, and even different levels of what is acceptable in terms of biblical servitude. Some seem to be okay with the 7 year scenario, but not with the purchasing of a foreign slave. Or, they just want to focus on foreign slaves because they just think focusing on that make for a stronger case.

Where do you yourself draw the line on what is acceptable ownership of a human, from modern contemporary institutions I referred to, to biblical references to slavery/servitude?
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@3RU7AL
Like I said in the post right before this one, there are different levels of the ownership of another human being. Since the argument for biblical slavery centers around the ownership of another human being, then how do they compare them to contemporary institutions that own human beings?

That's why I brought up the military.
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@RoderickSpode
Depends on what you mean. The argument against biblical slavery is owning another human being. So if that's the case, what about the (American) military and prisons? What about the 7 year voluntary servitude scenario laid out for an Israelite? They were given a choice between serving (and being owned) for 7 years to pay off damages or an act of theft, or go to prison (where they will also be owned).People seem to have different levels of what is acceptable ownership of another human, and even different levels of what is acceptable in terms of biblical servitude. Some seem to be okay with the 7 year scenario, but not with the purchasing of a foreign slave. Or, they just want to focus on foreign slaves because they just think focusing on that make for a stronger case.Where do you yourself draw the line on what is acceptable ownership of a human, from modern contemporary institutions I referred to, to biblical references to slavery/servitude?
Forget about bond-servants.  Stop conflating bond-servants (voluntary contract laborers) and slavery.  Stop muddying the waters.

We're all talking about the part of the holy scripture that says you can buy permanent foreign slaves and bequeath them to your children.
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@SkepticalOne
I believe I understand your view fairly well. Please correct any mistakes: You are against chattel slavery. You oppose sexual slavery. You find beating slaves without punishment wrong.

Unfortunately for you, these are all expressly endorsed by the Bible and not to be confused with the indentured servitude available exclusively to Israelites.
First question that comes to mind, do you include the Israelite 7 year servitude as a valid alternative to imprisonment, or do you include that in the overall assessment that the Bible endorses the evil institution of slavery?

Since this seems to be a major verse used to suggest the promotion of slavery in the bible:

Leviticus 25:44-46 New International Version (NIV)
44 “‘Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. 45 You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. 46 You can bequeath them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly.

Would you agree that the underlined statement suggests that making a foreign servant a slave for life was an option, therefore making the lifelong slaves was not the norm? Or at least an even or substantially fair amount of the master/foreign slave relationship did not result in lifetime servitude? In other words, the author made it clear that lifelong servitude was not automatic. Would you agree?

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@RoderickSpode
Would you agree that the underlined statement suggests that making a foreign servant a slave for life was an option, therefore making the lifelong slaves was not the norm? Or at least an even or substantially fair amount of the master/foreign slave relationship did not result in lifetime servitude? In other words, the author made it clear than lifelong servitude was automatic. Would you agree?
Who cares if it was "normal" or not.

It expressly allows the practice, which is the opposite of condemning the practice.
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@3RU7AL
Forget about bond-servants.  Stop conflating bond-servants (voluntary contract laborers) and slavery.  Stop muddying the waters.

We're all talking about the part of the holy scripture that says you can buy permanent foreign slaves and bequeath them to your children.
No, that portion of scripture relating to making a foreign slave permanent I don't directly relate to the military. I relate the general suggestion that owning a human being is evil to the military and the prison system.
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@3RU7AL
Who cares if it was "normal" or not.

It expressly allows the practice, which is the opposite of condemning the practice.
Hopefully S1 will care enough to answer the question.

You're welcome to answer it too by the way.