Mutilating tacit sexual consent

Author: Analgesic.Spectre

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Mister_Man
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I'm okay with terrifying people into not saying no? lol what?

No, I'm not. But if someone chooses to go along with something that they don't want to, then that shouldn't be a punishable crime.
Buddamoose
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So you're ok, then, with terrifying people into not saying no?

The only issue is "terror" is a subjective element, "coercion" is not, but is quickly becoming a subjective element. For example with Louis C.K. Just because of his celebrity quite a large amount of people were saying his actions, the worst of which was asking if he could whack it in front of a couple fans in his private room, was coercion because he was a celebrity and those women felt pressured because of it. 

When like, ok, so anyone who has any semblence of power and celebrity cant make sexual advances? Because if their celebrity makes any sexual advance coercion, which is absurd to what coercion is, for example, telling a subordinate "either you sleep with me or i'll make sure you lose your job" or "have sex with me if you want this job". The act of coercion requires active intimidation, not percieved. 

But as pointed out, plenty of people are trying to attribute a criminal act(coercion) to acts which are far from coercive(such as C.K.). That's a dangerous precedent to set because it places the determination of whether or not a crime has been committed, squarely in the hands of the person percieving the wrongdoing, and not independent of that. Basically, its stepping into the territory of, *thats a crime because I thought it was". Which in turn makes alot of people guilty of crimes they rationally should not be held as guilty of 🤔
drafterman
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@Buddamoose
@Mister_Man
@Mister_Man:

No, I'm not. But if someone chooses to go along with something that they don't want to, then that shouldn't be a punishable crime.
And how would you, as a third party, ascertain their voluntary choice?

@Buddamoose:

The only issue is "terror" is a subjective element, "coercion" is not, but is quickly becoming a subjective element. For example with Louis C.K. Just because of his celebrity quite a large amount of people were saying his actions, the worst of which was asking if he could whack it in front of a couple fans in his private room, was coercion because he was a celebrity and those women felt pressured because of it. 
First of all, surely actually masturbating in front of someone without their consent is worse. Secondly, I'll admit there is a grey area here in terms of coercion vs. pressure (and it's undeniable that the mere presence of celebrity creates pressure to assent). Did he coerce them? No. Did he exploit the pressure his celebrity naturally creates in order to do these things? Yes - he admits as much.

When like, ok, so anyone who has any semblence of power and celebrity cant make sexual advances? Because if their celebrity makes any sexual advance coercion, which is absurd to what coercion is, for example, telling a subordinate "either you sleep with me or i'll make sure you lose your job" or "have sex with me if you want this job". The act of coercion requires active intimidation, not percieved. 
Well, I can't imagine any person getting away with what Louis did, so I'm not sure how his celebrity is a factor in this particular case.

But as pointed out, plenty of people are trying to attribute a criminal act(coercion) to acts which are far from coercive(such as C.K.). That's a dangerous precedent to set because it places the determination of whether or not a crime has been committed, squarely in the hands of the person percieving the wrongdoing, and not independent of that. Basically, its stepping into the territory of, *thats a crime because I thought it was". Which in turn makes alot of people guilty of crimes they rationally should not be held as guilty of 🤔
Depends on the crime and the law. In some cases, some crimes do have a subjective element. Some have objective elements. Some have both. In this specific case, it is a subjective element: whether he exposed himself in a place where people would likely be offended. Offense is subjective. This crime is also a misdemeanor (unless it committed three or more times) and has a short statute of limitations (which has since passed).

But for me, I take issue with Mister_Man's statement:

 If someone doesn't want to have sex, all they have to do is say no.
Would you agree with that sentiment, Budda?
Buddamoose
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Would you agree with that sentiment, Budda?

Most of the time, sure that would be true. But given there is rape, and ita reasonable to presume rape victims tend to make it clearly known they do not wamt to have sex, "say no" doesn't cover it all. 

Active consent wouldn't necessarily solve this either, because rapists dont care about consent. And then we get into the issue that stopping in the midst of foreplay to be like, "I'm gonna need you to sign an consent form" is a huge buzzkill and oft would lead to zero sex and awkward interactions thereafter and into the future. Baby making would be super constrained, basically, and we want a system thats conducive to babymaking, while also one that stresses consent. Its a balance between the two. Too much focus on consent and the thrill dissapears, because well, you try reading over a contract and staying ready for sex, i wouldnt be able to, and credit to anyone who could 😂. 


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I think about it like pre-nups right? They're a-ok to bring up fmpov, but alot of people view it as insulting. Active consent and such forms that often get advocated in tandem, would produce a similar perception of insult, like. "you really think I'm gonna turn around and claim rape? Fuck you for even thinking that" 🤔
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@drafterman
And how would you, as a third party, ascertain their voluntary choice?
That's pretty difficult. In cases of rape, it's mostly "he said, she said." I'm talking about ways to prevent it, not ways to convict rapists. And like Buddamoose said, it's quite difficult to have good sex while having to gain consent every five seconds, and at the same time can lead to people feeling like they aren't trusted.

Just because I don't have a solution doesn't mean I can't criticize others.
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@Mister_Man
Just because I don't have a solution doesn't mean I can't criticize others.
Regulated brothels where sex is the given ---consent from out front--   provided saftey guidlines are in place.

It is so nuts, ---like so many irrational, nutzoid laws--- not to have brothels, primarily for men, to get their genetic fix, satisfied.

That would be a good start for a solution, primarily mens issues regarding sex with women. No? Yes?

Sex with woman who is not in the business of consentual sex as a given, is truly a differrent set of circumstances for the man.

However, the man could maybe learn something about women via the brothel method and that may make for a better exchange with between the man and women in circumstances not brothel related.

So much of what humans do not communicate need to be communicated and in some cases acted out, to satisfy/scratch and itch/gene.





 

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@mustardness
I completely agree, I actually posted a similar argument in favour of regulated brothels in another forum thread.

The thing men could learn is maybe a better way to read body language? Or women could learn how to just say no if they don't want to do something instead of going along with it then making a big mistake.

I do agree that men should take body language into account, and if they're continuing to do something even though the girl is being quite hesitant, there's something wrong.
drafterman
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@Buddamoose
Budda:

And then we get into the issue that stopping in the midst of foreplay to be like, "I'm gonna need you to sign an consent form" is a huge buzzkill and oft would lead to zero sex and awkward interactions thereafter and into the future. Baby making would be super constrained, basically, and we want a system thats conducive to babymaking, while also one that stresses consent. Its a balance between the two. Too much focus on consent and the thrill dissapears, because well, you try reading over a contract and staying ready for sex, i wouldnt be able to, and credit to anyone who could 😂. 
Except no one is asking you to sign a contract. I mean, people see a positive consent law and talk about things like contracts and affirming consent every five seconds. This is basically text-book strawman. Are you saying you literally cannot get hard in the presence of affirmative consent? If so, that is scary. Just sit back and think about it. Think about what this law is actually saying, not these comical cariactures you have drawn.

At least my hyperbolic scenario is one we all agree is an ideal outcome that should happen! You guys are just inventing stupid ideas that no one is calling for.

Mister:

That's pretty difficult. In cases of rape, it's mostly "he said, she said." I'm talking about ways to prevent it, not ways to convict rapists. And like Buddamoose said, it's quite difficult to have good sex while having to gain consent every five seconds, and at the same time can lead to people feeling like they aren't trusted.

Just because I don't have a solution doesn't mean I can't criticize others.
I'm also talking about ways to prevent it. I believe there is some sense to the "teach men not to rape" angle. Go out there and a lot of men have some twisted and perverted issues when it comes to what is rape and the ideas of consent. Consider that, until recently, it was an accepted fact that it was impossible for a husband to rape his wife. Like, we didn't have laws against marital rape until the 19 fucking 70's. The idea that - yes - a husband can rape a wife was an idea that had to be argued and taught.

Socially, some men are simply not taught how to appropriately interact with women in ways that are not all attributable to mental illness.

Nor am I taking away your right to criticize, I'm simply criticizing it back. Again, consider that while what I present is impractical it is still a goal we agree on while your criticism is about something that no one is proposing (affirming consent every five seconds). So, given a choice between agreeing with something you agree with, you've decided to instead construct a fictitious scenario to critique and take the opposite side of the argument.

I do agree that men should take body language into account, and if they're continuing to do something even though the girl is being quite hesitant, there's something wrong.
Yeah, and a solution to that is changing how boys are raised into men. But that is a multi-generational process involving a generation of adults that actually agree with such a change needs to happen, and we're not there yet. In the mean time, rather than hoping men suddenly become attuned to body language, you still think it is unreasonable to place a higher value on affirmative, unambiguous consent?
Buddamoose
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Except no one is asking you to sign a contract. I mean, people see a positive consent law and talk about things like contracts and affirming consent every five seconds. This is basically text-book strawman
Guilty as charged 😂

Ok, so lets get down to brass tacks. Now, these concepts, as you pointed out with the laws that recognized spousal rape, have real world consequences. There is an active consent law in place in California, so i think its a more than reasonable thing to examine for the effects of a "yes means yes"(active consent) a opposed to a "no means no" standard(passive consent)

The New Law seeks both to improve how universities handle rape and sexual assault accusations and to clarify the standards, requiring an "affirmative consent" and stating that consent can't be given if someone is asleep or incapacitated by drugs or alcohol. [1]
"Lack of protest or resistance does not mean consent," the law states, "nor does silence mean consent. Affirmative consent must be ongoing throughout a sexual activity and can be revoked at any time."[1]

Now, much of this seems sensible on its face, there are clear situations at least in every situation where one could easily see situations where rape and/or sexual assault would clearly be happening. 

But consider, two individuals are both drinking. Both actively consent to sex throughout the encounter. The next day Person A files a complaint against person B for rape. Now, the question here is not whether person B is guilty of rape, the question is, how do we determine that? If both are drinking, then neither is capable of consent, no? So both are guilty of rape, or neither? 

Difference in inebriation potentially becomes a factor too, but yet again, how is that reasonably determined if it does become a factor? 
 
(sorry, this page has been auto refreshing w/my phone and I've had to type this part up idk how many times, ill be making a follow up post, i just don't wanna lose this again 😂)


Buddamoose
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the bill is inherently “reversing” the traditional presumption of innocence for those accused because the accused now have to prove they did get permission to be found not guilty -- at least in college disciplinary hearings.

Denice Labertew, the director of advocacy services at the California Coalition Against Sexual Assault, said the bill creates a "clearer standard" because instead of the alleged victim being required to prove they didn't want to engage in sexual activity, the alleged perpetrator would be required to prove his partner did want to.[1]

Now this is just in universities, right now. But it is not "omg that's so absurd, stop strawmanning hardcore" to bring up the situation where such standards end up mandating, to protect oneself legally from accusations of rape and/or sexual assault, that measures be taken to safeguard. Nor absurd to examine for effects if adopted widespread.

Ur right that written contracts would be useless and are a total strawman though, because consent can just be revoked after the theoretical contract would be signed. So then comes the issue, is the burden of proof being shifted, is the presumption of innocence being reversed, worth it? 

I would hold no, my mind does not sit easy with an ends justify the means approach as that in essence is 🤔. Nor does it sit easy with me the kind of precedent that would set for criminal prosecutions. And thats not a slippery slope fallacy, because that is already an issue in universities, now even with Title IX, apart from the aforementioned law, which is now holding that same presumption.[2]

I can see the noble intent, but what do you suggest individuals do when guilt is presumed, and written consent is pointless? I agree it theoretically should be revokable at any time, but it becomes a clear issue to me when such standards constitute as reversals of the principles of presumption of innocence and burden of proof being on prosecution/accuser.

And now the accused is placed in a position of having to prove they didnt commit a crime, instead of having to prove a crime has been committed. 



Mopac
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People are talking about contracts, and all I can think of is...


These are non issues for people who don't have sex outside of marriage.


Next we should talk about the legal implications of venereal disease transmission. 

All these mental gymnastics that surround doing things the wrong way, but the solution is so very easy....

... shun sexual immorality.


drafterman
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@Buddamoose
But consider, two individuals are both drinking. Both actively consent to sex throughout the encounter. The next day Person A files a complaint against person B for rape. Now, the question here is not whether person B is guilty of rape, the question is, how do we determine that? If both are drinking, then neither is capable of consent, no? So both are guilty of rape, or neither? 
The idea of inebriation inhibiting consent has largely become a strawman itself. It's hard to pin down specific details because different jurisdictions have different definitions of intoxicated and have different stances on what levels of intoxication can nullify consent (if any). For example, at the federal level, there is no stipulation for this!


Notice that the section on intoxication/drug-imparied-judgement, requires that the drug be administered "by force or threat of force, or without the knowledge or consent." Thus a person voluntarily getting drunk is not covered here. Furthermore, the element of alcohol actually decreases the rate upon which sexual assault cases result in prosecution and conviction (http://www.startribune.com/how-alcohol-foils-rape-investigations-in-minnesota-denied-justice-part-three/488413421/).

Now this is just in universities, right now. But it is not "omg that's so absurd, stop strawmanning hardcore" to bring up the situation where such standards end up mandating, to protect oneself legally from accusations of rape and/or sexual assault, that measures be taken to safeguard. Nor absurd to examine for effects if adopted widespread.
Yes, inherently risky behaviors do warrant people taking measures to protect themselves, physically, socially, legally. My question is: why single out sexual assault for criticism? You can be accused of a any crime by any one at any time. Sexual assault cases already have an extremely low prosecution rate (about 1 in 30) and, of those that actually get prosecuted only about half result in actual incarceration (https://www.rainn.org/statistics/criminal-justice-system). And that's just the ones that are reported! Only about 1 in 5 cases are reported to the police to begin with! That means, rolling the die (and depending on the circumstances), you could commit 179 acts of sexual assault before you have a 50% chance of going to jail for it.

Yet, if you're a woman, then the odds are 1-6 that you are the victim of attempted or actual rape thoroughout your life time. Given those statistics, where should the focus be? Almost 20% of women actually getting raped with no recourse? Or snotty kids hand wringing because they're losing their chubby when the woman actually expresses consent?

Ur right that written contracts would be useless and are a total strawman though, because consent can just be revoked after the theoretical contract would be signed. So then comes the issue, is the burden of proof being shifted, is the presumption of innocence being reversed, worth it? 
Histrionics. Presumption of innocence isn't being reversed. Basically this is establishing affirmative consent as a positive defense against sexual assault. PLENTY of crimes have a positive defense. For example: murder. You are allowed to kill someone if it is necessary for self-defense. That is a positive defense: you must prove it in court. Yet do we suggest that the presumption of innocence is reversed? No!

The only thing this changes is what elements constitute rape (lack of affirmative consent vs. lack of consent). It's not some drastic upheaval of the justice system.

I would hold no, my mind does not sit easy with an ends justify the means approach as that in essence is 🤔. Nor does it sit easy with me the kind of precedent that would set for criminal prosecutions. And thats not a slippery slope fallacy, because that is already an issue in universities, now even with Title IX, apart from the aforementioned law, which is now holding that same presumption.[2]
Laws don't establish precedent, cases do. I can't actually find a specific case tried under these laws.

I can see the noble intent, but what do you suggest individuals do when guilt is presumed, and written consent is pointless? I agree it theoretically should be revokable at any time, but it becomes a clear issue to me when such standards constitute as reversals of the principles of presumption of innocence and burden of proof being on prosecution/accuser.

And now the accused is placed in a position of having to prove they didnt commit a crime, instead of having to prove a crime has been committed. 
This is all hyperbole. This does not change the nature of the criminal justice system. You are still innocent until proven guilty and the prosecution still has the inherent burden of proving their case. It doesn't even change the fundamental "he said she said" nature of sexual assault cases.
Buddamoose
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1 in 5 women are sexually assaulted

This statistic is absolute rubbish. First of all, that information was from a survey. A survey that had numerous issues. 

 
Indeed, AAU’s 23 percent figure should be interpreted within the survey’s broad definitional umbrella of sexual assault and sexual misconduct, which includes incidences of unwanted “sexual touching: touching someone’s breast, chest crotch groin, or buttocks—grabbing, groping or rubbing against the other in a sexual way, even if the touching is over the other’s clothes.”
While researchers wrote that the “sexual touching” behaviors they outlined fit with criminal definitions of sexual battery, it is impossible to know whether participants’ varying accounts of unwanted “sexual touching” would hold up in campus tribunals, let alone in criminal court.
Though the survey’s results are more nuanced in the fine print, the AAU researchers still lumped together varying degrees of “sexual assault and sexual misconduct.” This, too, could mislead readers, given that degrees of assault are generally categorized under the law and punished accordingly. And lumping assault and misconduct together may minimize more serious traumas.[1]

Sexual misconduct is inexcusable, but a minor incident of unwanted touching should not be equated with rape. Indeed, we should educate college women to distinguish varying degrees of sexual assault while still understanding that they shouldn’t tolerate or be ashamed of speaking out about sexual assault or misconduct.[1]

 AAU researchers acknowledged that their findings could reflect an inflated victimization rate at participating schools due to “non-response bias”; in other words, they determined that the hundreds of thousands of students who didn’t participate in their electronic survey (only 19 percent of those asked to take the survey did so) were less likely to have been sexually assaulted. The non-response bias further weakens the oft-recited “one in five” figure—the number of women who say they have been sexually assaulted during their college years—since AAU’s survey and others that preceded it are not representative of all college women[1]

The study clashes with data gathered by the Justice Department between 1995 and 2013, which found that college-age women who aren’t students are more likely to be raped or sexually assaulted than women who are students. The number of victims was significantly lower than those in other recent surveys: 7.6 of 1,000 non-students compared to 6.1 of 1,000 students
 

"Only 1 in 5 cases get reported to police" 

And those are irrelevant considering to hold them as relevant you are assuming them to be true, something you nor I can know. So to get this straight for all observers. Though Drafterman clearly takes issue with presumption of guilt and burden of proof being placed on the accused, we see here in action how that is exactly how he views it regardless.

"1/5 cases arent even reported"

"Sexual assault cases already have an extremely low prosecution rate (about 1 in 30) and, of those that actually get prosecuted only about half result in actual incarceration "

For these statistics to even matter you would have to be presuming guilt where it's either not been prosecuted, or does not reach a conviction

And if current legal standards are what is bringing about these results, in combination with the numerous aforementioned difficulties in proving a crime happened beyond a reasonable doubt, if you are going to change these numbers, obviously an issue to Drafter who brought them up, you are going to have to change the standards that cause those results, namely the presumption of innocence and BoP being on the accuser. 


Buddamoose
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To clarify regarding the sexual assault/rape proportionality(1/6, it was once 1/4, but I guess people werent buying that piece of alarmist BS, so you gotta try to tweak the numbers so they might be more believable, if not still absurdly out of line with all other crime rates.

The issues with that survey were the non response bias(only 19% of those requests actually responded. And that misconduct, was too easily lumped in with the more serious crimes of rape and/or sexual assault. 

Which, holy shit, this directly ties into my point about C.K. and coercion.(which btw, in person, he was pretty clear he asked for consent before pulling out his junk.), And yet, you hold he still committed wrongdoing because his celebrity, as you held, constitutes as "pressuring" which is itself included within "intimidation" itself included in "coercion". Ergo, you still consider it to be coercive, for a celebrity, to make a sexual advance on someone. 

Which is absurd, because then any advance from a celebrity, towards a non-celebrity, becomes coercion by default, regardless of whether consent, active or otherwise, is sought. 

Which brings up a huge issue, you are advocating for active consent as if this will solve alllll these problems. When you necessarily conceded with the C.K. issue, that you can still be held as having committed wrongdoing, criminal or non-criminal is irrelevant, as the accusation still has heavy real world consequences, even if they seek consent, active or otherwise. 

I'm having a hard time seeing how this advocacy is all that stellar, if even you admit by virtue of your arguments, that it holds little weight regarding whether or not wrongdoing has been committed. As you can seek consent, and get it, without the people being under the influence of drugs and/or alcohol, without at all referencing that celebrity or directly threatening to use that influence and power to negative effect, and still be held as having committed wrongdoing. 

Not to mentioned "1/5" is a rate that is astronomically absurd. Not a damn crime has a rate of being committed that it rates at 25% of the female population per capita. All other crimes fall into the low single digits and most lower than 1% per capita. (DoJ has it at .76%(7.6) and .61%(6.1)).


Buddamoose
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On the note of "hyperbole"

I'm not the one that brought up that these changes in standards have real world consequences in law. To state that "what you are concerned about no longer being a core principle, is still a core principle. 

And thats the thing. They are core principles, neither of the two is codified into law. And to state, " its not happened yet criminally"

is true, but wholly ignores that such a standard has been adopted(Title IX) which has, to no surprise, resulted in young adults being railroaded out of university without any semblence of a fair trial, in proceedings where guilt is presumed and burden of proof is on the accused. 

You are the one advocating for active consent standards, you are the one who brought up that these shifts in standards, have the real consequence of sometimes being codified into law. You brought it up with spousal rape laws, i further cemented that in bringing up Title IX. 

Now, I'm pretty sure we can both realize, that though these students arent usually criminally prosecuted, they are still ousted from a federally funded university and given a black mark on their record that will follow them around for life. This all from something that it seems obvious both of us would agree does not at all constitute a fair trial. 

So to say, "well that's not a criminal prosecution" is rubbish and disingenuous to your stance still having real world consequences. Now either you own up to those consequences, which are, as established, the direct result of the standard you are advocating for, or the one committing a fallacy here is you with a "no true scotsman". Because when you can be railroaded out of an upper education and left with a permanent scutch on your academic record, all without a fair trial, that one isnt being criminally prosecuted is of little consolation to the injustice that been done already. 

To clarify, your statistics on the lack of criminal prosecution for cases of rape and/or sexual assault, and such instances going unreported, don't matter at all unless you are presuming, even if just in part, guilt where guilt has not been proven beyond a reasonable doubt. 

And you honestly want to try to claim pointing that out, and pointing out that these standards already are having severe impacts on the lives of many, impacts which are being adjudicated without any semblence of a fair trial, is hyperbole? 

Hyperbole- exaggerated statements or claims not meant to be taken literally.

Tell me, how are the claims exaggerated and/or not meant to be taken literally when the claims are already happening? 🤔. You cant have your cake and eat it too here. You want to advocate for active consent, and point out that changes of standards have real world consequences in law(spousal rape laws) and/or punishments independent of criminal prosecution(Title IX), Then you are going to have to own up to the real world consequences of the very position you are advocating for. That is not hyperbole, and claims that such consequences are irrelevant because criminal standards haven't changed *yet* both ignores the direct consequence of a change to predominant standards(incoporation into law), and the necessary consequences of that incorporation as already witnessed via California Law and Title IX. 

To call it hyperbole, to claim it wouldn't happen, is what is itself as absurd as the strawman of written contracts, because it already is happening. And to repeat again, as established by you with spousal rape laws, the widespread adoption of standards, leads to those standards being codified into law. 

Honestly, your response to these consequences is equivalent to someone going, "BuT tHaTs NoT ReAl ComMuNiSm/SoCiAlIsM" when somebody brings up the myriad of governances that have adopted those Marxist ideologies. As said, no true scotsman fallacy at its finest




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@Mister_Man
I do agree that men should take body language into account, and if they're continuing to do something even though the girl is being quite hesitant, there's something wrong.
Yeah, no one has the solution to the dmans point of  'he said she said' truth.

What I recall the judge saying to us 12 jurors, was that he is the judge of the law, and we are the judge of the truth. Good luck there, especially when so much of the peoples under considerations history, may not be included/allowed i.e. how well do 12 strangers know the two people. Not that well.

Electronic implants in man and woman to record our lives may be the final solution. Then we can just check the electronic record.  Can it be tampered with. Sure but that is whole other issue.

Regulated communication brothels is rational logical common sense aid for man and woman to become informed about the opposite sex, satisfy and genetic drive and practice social skills.

So I have nothing much to offer than what Ive repeated above.  I read once that the biggest differrences for people is not race it is sex.

Square dancing  was a way of old 'square' peoples to exchange energy in a fun way.  Imagine that, having fun can be accepted. 

Then came dirty dancing ergo dirty fun?





Buddamoose
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To summarize:

I pointed out that these standards reverse the principles of presumption of innocence and burden of proof being on the accuser. 

You responded with saying that such standards havent been adopted criminally, *yet* .

But *yet* does not address the future and practical effects. As you established, the widespread adoption of a standard change leads to that often being codified into law(spousal rape laws). 

Which then honestly raises the question, if you wish to see the standard change, but do not want to see deviations from said standard met with punishments(due to those standards being inherently unjust when applied perhaps? 🤔) What purpose does your advocacy even have? 

Unjust punishments are unjust punishments, regardless of how you try to slice it. And implementation of your advocacy necessarily leads to unjust punishments already. And it's well within likely probability, that such standards eventually become codified into law if they become the general standard(spousal rape laws, Title IX, California Law). 

Which its important to note, you are right that no such reversals of principle have been brought forward in prosecution independent of universities in the realm of criminal law. Which necessarily concedes that even if we adopt the standard, punishment for deviation from that standard still results in the same issue of lack of reporting, prosecuting, and sentencing criminally, because those reversals of principles are what directly addresses that issue, This still only mattering statistically if you are presuming guilt from the onset. This not to say there aren't actual victims who don't report, or actual perpetrators who aren't prosecuted or sentenced, rather, that the existence of those, does not justify presuming guilt and having the means of punishing innocents, does not justify the ends of catching those who actually do. As again, the only feasible way you address this proposed issue, is by reversing fair trial principles, as Title IX did for that reason. As without doing so, the proposed problem still exists, and our hands are tied as to do anything about it. 






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drafterman
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@Buddamoose
Jesus Christ Budda. Let's try to keep this in consumable quantities. I'm not going to do a point-by-point here. I'll address what I think are the key issues:

This statistic is absolute rubbish. First of all, that information was from a survey. A survey that had numerous issues.
All of your citations are in reference to a sexual assault survey performed by the Association of American Universities in 2015. My reference came from here (https://www.rainn.org/statistics/scope-problem) and is linked to a survey performed by the National Institute of Justice & Centers for Disease Control and Prevention in 1998. And - fuck - you didn't even quote me. No where did I utter the words "1 in 5 women are sexually assaulted." So you manually typed that in, then highlighted it, then clicked the "Quote" button.

For these statistics to even matter you would have to be presuming guilt where it's either not been prosecuted, or does not reach a conviction
I presume no such thing, I am simply reporting the numbers of how often these things get reported, result in prosecutions and incarceration. This was in direct response to your concern that somehow sex is now going to become this criminally risky behavior:

to protect oneself legally from accusations of rape and/or sexual assault, that measures be taken to safeguard
We're both just talking about the accusations here, valid or not. I'm simply pointing out, from a pure risk management perspective, that the fear here is unwarranted, or at least not in proportion with the likelihood of a bad outcome - guilty or innocent!

Which, holy shit, this directly ties into my point about C.K. and coercion.(which btw, in person, he was pretty clear he asked for consent before pulling out his junk.), And yet, you hold he still committed wrongdoing because his celebrity, as you held, constitutes as "pressuring" which is itself included within "intimidation" itself included in "coercion". Ergo, you still consider it to be coercive, for a celebrity, to make a sexual advance on someone. 
I don't see what one has to do with the other but C.K. has conceded to the accusations, which include him masturbating infront of women without getting her consent. I don't consider it to be coercion in the legal sense, no.

Which brings up a huge issue, you are advocating for active consent as if this will solve alllll these problems. When you necessarily conceded with the C.K. issue, that you can still be held as having committed wrongdoing, criminal or non-criminal is irrelevant, as the accusation still has heavy real world consequences, even if they seek consent, active or otherwise. 
I'm less advocating for these laws and more criticizing all the penis-wringing that is being had over it, as if this is the end of romantic sex. I challenge you to quote anything I've actually said that states or implies this will solve these problems. Nor do I recall conceding anything with C.K.

resulted in young adults being railroaded out of university without any semblence of a fair trial, in proceedings where guilt is presumed and burden of proof is on the accused. 
For example?

Now, I'm pretty sure we can both realize, that though these students arent usually criminally prosecuted, they are still ousted from a federally funded university and given a black mark on their record that will follow them around for life. This all from something that it seems obvious both of us would agree does not at all constitute a fair trial.
I would have to see an example of what you're talking about to judge whether or not the trial was fair.

Then you are going to have to own up to the real world consequences of the very position you are advocating for. That is not hyperbole...
Stop. Slow down. Take a deep breath. No where have I said there won't be consequences for this. Necessarily, this change alters the dynamic of prosecuting sexual assault cases in a non-zero way. It does shift the nature of how these cases are tried and defended against in court. Whether that shift is significant or not remains to be seen. But we strengthen and loosen laws all the time, that's how the law works.

The idea that there are consequences to this isn't what I'm calling hyperbole. What I'm calling hyperbole is this notion that this change somehow completely and utterly inverts the presumption of innocence. It doesn't. There is no evidence it has.



Buddamoose
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I do agree that men should take body language into account, and if they're continuing to do something even though the girl is being quite hesitant, there's something wrong

You say this as if men for the most part arent factoring that in already. "Active v Tacit" consent is not an issue of body language and non verbal cues. Active consent holds nonverbal cues as just as much a form of consent as tacit. 

Tacit would be a presumption of consent when no rejection or indication of lack of desire has been offered despite having opportunity to do so. Active would be both partners actively consenting(verbally or non-verbally) throughout the encounter. 

Non verbal cues are included within active consent as a form of consent. Ex:

Mid-sex, assuming active consent up to that point, Person A attempts to cease, or indicates they wish to cease, sexual activity in some way. Under both, if the other persists they are now committing rape. 

Also for illistration:

Same situation, but instead of person A attempting to, or indicating they wish to cease activities, they do not in any way. They still wish for it to cease though, which is what is crucial to establish the claim of rape. If person B persists, under active consent, they are committing rape. Under tacit consent, they are not. 

Now, Drafter proposes this as something that addresses the ambiguity of non verbal communication. But no, it doesn't, as active consent allows for non verbal cues as consent. 

What it actually does is it reverses the onus from Person A to make it otherwise known they wish activities to cease, to being on Person B to determine that. Glaring issue, between two consenting adults, this stance necessarily views one participant as having greater responsibility than another. Which necessarily means burdens of proof are shifted AND presumption of guilt. These reversals arent negotiable, they are intrinsic to active consent. As bolded, it places whether or not wrongdong has been committed, squarely onto whether or not one feels wrongdoing has been committed. Which necessarily places burden of proof onto the accused to prove they did not, as opposed to the accused needing to prove that they did. 

Claims of reversals of fair trial principles are not hyperbolic to the situation, they are necessary consequences of the standard, and have already resulted in such applications being carried out to punishments in areas that have longstanding ill effects to a persons livelihood(Title IX). 

Which brings up consequentially, being that under active consent *it is only necessary a person not want to continue sexual activities* even after otherwise consenting previously in the same encounter, without having to make it known or indicate otherwise(non verbal cues being applicable to this), then how is a person to reasonably determine this? 

Furthermore, as reversals of burdens of proof and presumption of guilt are necessary to the adoption of active consent both at a fundamental level and as illustrated in practical applications of Title IX. This independently also a necessity to addressing the proposed issue of lack of reporting, prosecution, and conviction, as active consent does not address in the absence of. This leads to a necessary issue, how would a person, short of videotaping entire sexual encounters,(as written consent is inapplicable) something that in itself requires written or verbal consent, reasonably protect themselves from such accusations? 

Which just circles right back to what is being advocated for, would necessitate, particularly if we are going to be tying consequences to deviations from said standard, a total shift in how sexual encounters tend to operate. 

Not just from the perspective of both parties being incentivized to record consent, but also in that it incentivizes pre-emptive reporting of such deviations as a means to insulate oneself from potential accusations.

Something that is already being witnessed as, where these advocacies are actually being carried out, something Drafter would otherwise wish to ignore, males are starting to preemptively claim wrongdoing to insulate against accusation, and there is no choice but to railroad the accused anyway... welcome to what this standard creates 

There is nothing in law that mandates presumption of innocence and burdens of proof being on the accuser. That is just near universally considered to be a necessary component to the right to a fair trial. To say it hasn't happened yet criminally, is a herring to it already happening non-criminally and to it being a necessary practical effect of the standard as illustrated. 🤔

And as pointed out in the first paragraph, the proposed issue of non verbal cues not otherwise predominantly being understood and recognizable, won't be addressed by active consent, as active consent accepts non verbal cues as a form of consent. 

To address non verbal cues, you would have to create a standard that emphasizes verbal cues(written excluded).

Non verbal communication is ambiguous and often results in misunderstandings in all areas of social interaction, not just sexual encounters. Which turns this less into an issue of primarily sexual consent, and more into an issue of consent standards overall. 

As Drafter is positing, non verbal cues are unreliable, and that lack of reliability leads to serious harm in areas where it fails. But how is active consent going to solve that/how is that exclusively the issue of tacit consent, when non verbal cues are forms of consent in both?  

🤔




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Buddamoose
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The idea that there are consequences to this isn't what I'm calling hyperbole. What I'm calling hyperbole is this notion that this change somehow completely and utterly inverts the presumption of innocence. It doesn't. There is no evidence it has

wew 😂 wew, despite me point out it actually has with how Title IX is being carried out under the adoption of active consent standards. 

Yup, like i said, you're pulling a "ItS NoT rEaL GomMuNiSm". Title IX adopted active consent as the standard. That standard has directly resulted in what it was meant to do as a means to address this proposed epidemic of unreported, unprosecuted, unconvicted rapes. A presumption of guilt.

That it is not a criminal adjudication does not magically mean its not a consequence of the position. Particularly when that position is being carried out to exact punishments under pretenses that could not by any stretch of the term be ethically defined as a "fair" jurisprudence. 

The crucial difference between active and tacit consent here is that under tacit consent revoked consent cannot be passive, it has to be active and made known either verbally or non verbally. Under active consent, revoked consent can be passive, it does not have to be made known verbally or non verbally.

Again, this shifts the responsibility, and thus burden of proof, from one individual, onto the other. More specifically, from the accuser to the accused. It turns the question at onset from one of, "what did you do to make it known?" To, "what did they do to find out?"

That is pretty clearly a reversal of the burden of proof. And establishes one party as of greater responsibility(greater burden) to establish clear consent. All under the basis of accused v accusser. As the he said she said nature of such cases cannot ascertained, exact details can't really be used fairly. So you are left with parsing the responsibility to be on the party being accused at fault for not sufficiently acting in a manner to be able to determine that consent. 

Instead of, "what evidence do you have you didn't consent?" it again becomes, "what evidence do you have the other actually did consent?"

Again, that's a clear reversal of burdens of proof 🤔. 

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Now, Drafter proposes this as something that addresses the ambiguity of non verbal communication. But no, it doesn't, as active consent allows for non verbal cues as consent. 
I agree. But while all verbal cues are generally less ambiguous than all non-verbal cues that is not to say that all non-verbal cues are as equally ambiguous as any other.

Which necessarily means burdens of proof are shifted AND presumption of guilt.
There is no evidence that this is the case. The burdens of proof in trying these cases remains the same.

Before:
Her: I said "No"
Him: No she didn't

After:
Her: I didn't say "Yes"
Him: Yes she did

The burden is still upon the prosecutor/plaintiff/accuser to prove their statement (be it "I said 'No'" or "I didn't say 'Yes") beyond a reasonable doubt (criminally) or with a preponderance of evidence (civally). THAT HASN'T CHANGED.

Now, we can argue which is harder to prove or defend against, but that doesn't materially change the fundamental nature of presumed innocence.

Under active consent *it is only necessary a person not want to continue sexual activitieseven after otherwise consenting previously in the same encounter, without having to make it known or indicate otherwise
Cite this.
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Cite this.

Silent; not expressed; implied or inferred; manifested by the refraining from contradiction or objection; inferred from the situation and circumstances, in the absence of express matter. Thusly tacit consent is consent inferred from the fact that the party kept silence when he had an opportunity to forbid or refuse.[1]

Hrmmm, silent, not expressed, implied or inferred, in the absence of expressed matter. The issue at play here to you is that tacit consent does not allow for the revocation of consent outside of even the expressions of nonverbal communication. Consent once given, must be revoked actively, or else consent is considered given throughout the singular instance. 

This thread was created as an attempt to multilate tacit consent, no? Are you magically now not presenting active consent as an alternative to tacit consent?

If tacit consent holds as its core principle that revoked consent must be made known through verbal or non-verbal communication, but active consent does not hold the inverse principle, that being it does not need to be made known, then active consent and this discussion as a whole is consequentially a herring to mutilating tacit consent as you arent even addressing the core principle. Either you disagree that consent cant be revoked passively, or you agree. If active consent does not operate as an inverse to that principle, then it is not addressing tacit consent, full stop. 

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If active consent still holds revocation of consent must be expressed, then it doesnt differ from tacit consent. 🤔

But if revocation need not be expressed, then that necessarily requires holding people as guilty of crimes they otherwise have potentially no indication they are committing. The whole purpose of active consent laws is in establishing the grounds to hold revoked consent not indicated as a valid form of revocation, thus establishing rape/assault/misconduct as being committed. Where in tacit consent it is largely not. 

To address the proposed issue of lack of reporting, prosecution, and conviction, active consent must necessarily flip these presumptions, else it doesnt address these proposed issues at all, because the same criminal and civil standards will be present that create this proposed issue anyways.  

Nor does active consent address the amibiguity of non verbal cues and communication, because it holds those as valid forms of consent and revocation, the same as tacit consent does. Which also means this ambiguity is not exclusive to tacit consent, ergo, not causing it. 
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When I said: "cite this" I didn't mean give me a dictionary definition of tacit. You've outlined a specific scenario:

1. A person gives active consent.
2. The person secretly withdraws consent.
3. The other person is then convicted of rape and/or sexual assault as a result.

I want a citation of a specific case where this has occurred. Because, my main issue here is not a defense of affirmative consent laws as a panacea of rape and sexual assault, but rather to ridicule the ridiculous flailing about of man-children in response to these laws, as if it is going to be the end to the very idea of romantic sex and good ol' boys are just going to be rounded up on the flimsiest of charges and shipped off to jail to have their dicks chopped off.

If tacit consent holds as its core principle that revoked consent must be made known through verbal or non-verbal communication, but active consent does not hold the inverse principle, that being it does not need to be made known, then active consent and this discussion as a whole is consequentially a herring to mutilating tacit consent as you arent even addressing the core principle. Either you disagree that consent cant be revoked passively, or you agree. If active consent does not operate as an inverse to that principle, then it is not addressing tacit consent, full stop. 
This is perhaps the first interesting argument you've made this entire conversation.  First, let us propose a spectrum of consent:

(1)Affirmative consent - (2)tacit consent - (3)tacit nonconsent - (4)Affirmative nonconsent.

Now, you are arguing that:

1. Laws based on tacit consent, require affirmative non-consent in order for there to be a crime (that is: 1, 2, & 3 are legal, 4 is illegal)
2. Affirmative consent laws, in order to be a counter to tacit consent laws, must be the inverse (that is: 1 is legal, 2, 3, & 4 are illegal)

First, I am not aware of any explicit tacit consent law that requires nonconsent to be affirmative or explicit. Every law I've read that relies on consent simple requires that consent be lacking; it places no requirements on what kind of consent lacking. Thus, tacit consent laws aren't 123|4 (legal|illegal) but rather 12|34 (legal|illegal).

This requirement that affirmative consent be the "inverse" of tacit consent is unfounded seemingly based on your personal preference about how laws should be made. A cursory glance of any legal code should rob anyone of the notion that laws are about bound by any but the most generic logical principles. Laws are designed by committee, seldom revoked, mostly put into place to appease political ideologies, and are judged based on practical effects.

That said, my reading of affirmative consent laws simply shifts 2 to the illegal side, rendering our 1|234 (legal|illegal).

Now, you will probably go "Ah ha! You still have tacit nonconsent in the illegal column!" Indeed I do. As a strict reading of the law, tacit or affirmative necessarily places tacit nonconsent in the illegal column. Immediately apparent, then, is that this issue if tacit non-consent is the same in either case, not a consequence of affirmative consent laws.

The reason why I request a citation, then, is because in light of affirmative consent being given, the prosecutions case would be inordinately hard to prove, and I see no court in this country convicting anyone under these laws, where affirmative consent was given (not disputed by either side) but nonconsent was allegedly tacitly given.

Tacit nonconsent is a ridiculously hard thing to prove. The conflicting presence of affirmative consent makes it impossible.

81 days later

Analgesic.Spectre
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I find it absolutely baffling how hard drafterman derailed this thread with his irrelevant rape tangent.