How atheists"debate" religion

Author: Polytheist-Witch

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Double_R
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@Athias
That's all still inside one's head
Yes, this is what we refer to as “thinking”. It’s kind of how we form all of our beliefs about everything, so I have a hard time believing that is the thing any atheist you have interacted with was actually pointing to.

Knowledge is subjective--repetitive, I know . Why would one then suggest that "it all be blown up" because its subjective? 
Calling it subjective is blowing it up. The point of the nuclear method is to get rid of the concept of right vs wrong when assessing statements about reality, thereby allowing the individual to believe anything they want. Arguing that anything we consider to be knowledge is subject to nothing more than value driven standards accomplishes exactly that.

What’s nonsensical about this is that in order to know anything the individual must first believe they are right, so the person who calls knowledge subjective can no longer claim knowledge to anything.
Athias
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@Double_R
Yes, this is what we refer to as “thinking”. It’s kind of how we form all of our beliefs about everything
I'm aware. That's my point.

Calling it subjective is blowing it up.
No, it's not. It's simply understanding the nature of knowledge. There is no data accumulation which escapes qualia, just as there are no experiences which you yourself experience where you are not the subject. Data acquisition independent of the bias of one's mind is irrational and insignificant; hence, "objectivity" is irrational and insignificant and cannot be used to qualify knowledge. Knowledge can only be subjective.

The point of the nuclear method is to get rid of the concept of right vs wrong when assessing statements about reality, thereby allowing the individual to believe anything they want.
What is the issue with this? Individuals can believe whatever they want. And "right" and "wrong" are assessments reflecting one's values.

Arguing that anything we consider to be knowledge is subject to nothing more than value driven standards accomplishes exactly that.
It accomplishes removing the presumption of the indisputable.

What’s nonsensical about this is that in order to know anything the individual must first believe they are right, so the person who calls knowledge subjective can no longer claim knowledge to anything.
This makes no sense. I'm not claiming to be "objective" about this. Furthermore, objectivity does not apply in statements about knowledge. Read the above.

Double_R
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@Athias
What is the issue with this? Individuals can believe whatever they want.
We’re not talking about the limits of human capability. That should have been obvious. Of course individuals can believe whatever they want... what do you mean what’s the issue with this? This is the issue.

I don’t understand why I need to explain this but clearly I do; in order for us to function as a civilization we have to share a common sense of reality so that we can solve our problems and advance our interests. The “nuclear method” is problematic because it seeks to undermine the very foundation that all of us sit on in our efforts to achieve that common sense of reality. In other words, it’s selfishly destructive.

This is why I think when I told you that you were advocating the nuclear method you denied it. Seems to me that you intuitively understood what was wrong with what I was alleging even though you are going hard for it now. Why I don’t know, but back to the point...

And "right" and "wrong" are assessments reflecting one's values.
Exactly. So when someone says the earth is flat, to say they’re wrong is to merely assert values. According to this kind of warped thinking we could never make progress on a disagreement because all it boils down to is our opinion. We might as well debate whether chocolate is better than strawberry.

It’s absurd, and we would never prosper as a society by adopting this kind of thinking.

It accomplishes removing the presumption of the indisputable.
That’s not a good thing. The concept of the indisputable is what, for example, holds democracies together. Once upon a time the guy who received more votes was indisputably the president. But now because we have had a president who saw the opening that you are trying to pry open, we live in a society where nearly half the population lives in a delusion that he really won, so instead of solving our problems were now in a war over reality itself.

This makes no sense. I'm not claiming to be "objective" about this. Furthermore, objectivity does not apply in statements about knowledge.
To claim knowledge about something is to claim that you are right about that something. i.e. “I am right that the earth is round”. But your own value driven standards do not allow for you to be right because if knowledge is all subjective the there is no such thing as right.
Athias
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@Double_R
We’re not talking about the limits of human capability. That should have been obvious. Of course individuals can believe whatever they want... what do you mean what’s the issue with this? This is the issue.
You stated "allow." Who or what else other than the individual himself or herself "allows" him or her to believe whatever he or she wants?

I don’t understand why I need to explain this but clearly I do; in order for us to function as a civilization we have to share a common sense of reality so that we can solve our problems and advance our interests. The “nuclear method” is problematic because it seeks to undermine the very foundation that all of us sit on in our efforts to achieve that common sense of reality. In other words, it’s selfishly destructive.
That's a lot of emotional fluff. We're not discussing the functions of civilization, or how the "selfishness" of subjective knowledge has a yet to be explained destructive and undermining effect on another yet to be (explicitly) explained "foundation," which would first need to inform this alleged mutual exclusion between "subjective" and "common." We are discussing the nature of knowledge. You are alleging that categorizing knowledge as subjective is "blowing it all up." I refute this by informing you that knowledge by nature is subjective, and categorizing it as such, changes nothing. You are now alleging that commonality in the rationalization of reality is mutually exclusive from the subjectivity of knowledge. How? Can two or more people not share an opinion? And if they share it, does that make it "objective"?

This is why I think when I told you that you were advocating the nuclear method you denied it.
I denied it because it makes no sense. I understand that "objectivity" is irrational; Knowledge is rational; therefore, knowledge cannot be objective.

Seems to me
Seem is not an argument.

Exactly. So when someone says the earth is flat, to say they’re wrong is to merely assert values.
I suppose.

According to this kind of warped thinking
How is it "warped?"

we could never make progress on a disagreement because all it boils down to is our opinion.
Progress on a disagreement is agreement. Either way, it's opinionated.

We might as well debate whether chocolate is better than strawberry.
Chocolate is better.

It’s absurd, and we would never prosper as a society by adopting this kind of thinking.
More emotional fluff.

That’s not a good thing. The concept of the indisputable is what, for example, holds democracies together. Once upon a time the guy who received more votes was indisputably the president. But now because we have had a president who saw the opening that you are trying to pry open, we live in a society where nearly half the population lives in a delusion that he really won, so instead of solving our problems were now in a war over reality itself.
What the fluff are you talking about?

To claim knowledge about something is to claim that you are right about that something. i.e. “I am right that the earth is round”. But your own value driven standards do not allow for you to be right because if knowledge is all subjective the there is no such thing as right.
Your logic is lacking. You're measuring "right" and "wrong" by a standard of objectivity, an irrational concept--i.e. no data accumulation, acquisition, or cultivation escapes the bias of one's perception, individual experience, and/or mind. One could still be "right" or "wrong" based on their value driven standards. You're just hung up on the fact that it's not "objective"--i.e. not indisputable.
Double_R
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@Athias
Nope--not even remotely true. The intention behind my statements was not to "blow up all knowledge" and claim that the atheist's argument is "as bad as" the theist's argument.
I feel the need to remind you what this conversation is about. After equivocating the theists belief in god with the atheists use of logic on the basis that both are “inside their heads”, I pointed out to you that you are using the nuclear method. If you had just said “yes I am” this conversation would have been over a long time ago. Instead you continue to argue point by point every piece of it while claiming it’s not what you’re doing. That’s the issue here.

Of course people have their own biases. Of course those biases will always be applied to anything that one believes. But if you do not accept the concepts of reality itself, and the validity of logic (the foundations of knowledge) as objective, then you are not worth having a conversation with. That’s the point of bringing up the nuclear argument, not to claim that mankind has solved the problem of infinite regress.

You are now alleging that commonality in the rationalization of reality is mutually exclusive from the subjectivity of knowledge.
Complete strawman. I was explaining the why it matters, not the what. And I needed to do that because you went the semantic route implying that I don’t understand that we have the capability to believe whatever we want.

I understand that "objectivity" is irrational; Knowledge is rational; therefore, knowledge cannot be objective.
Let’s try this, give me an example of one thing that you know to be objectively true. 
Athias
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@Double_R
I feel the need to remind you what this conversation is about.
Don't feel. Cogitate; rationalize; argue.

After equivocating the theists belief in god with the atheists use of logic on the basis that both are “inside their heads”,
First, you are incorrectly using the term, "equivocate. " Equivocate means to obfuscate or to make unclear with the intention of deceiving. You mean to use, "equate."  And once again, the equivalence I drew did not, and does not extend beyond the fact that both are inside one's head.

If you had just said “yes I am” this conversation would have been over a long time ago
Why would one say, "yes I am," to something one hasn't done?

Instead you continue to argue point by point every piece of it while claiming it’s not what you’re doing.
I'm not "claiming." I've not done that which you allege.

Of course people have their own biases. Of course those biases will always be applied to anything that one believes.
So...

But if you do not accept the concepts of reality itself
How is your perception of reality distinct from your conception of reality? If as you mentioned above, everyone has their own biases, and said biases will be applied to all that which one believes, then how does the concept of reality escape bias?

and the validity of logic (the foundations of knowledge) as objective
I do accept the validity of logic. And it's by virtue of accepting logic, that I understand that objectivity is irrational. Because objectivity is illogical. Rationalizing "reality" is inescapably subject to qualia.

then you are not worth having a conversation with
That's unfortunate.

Complete strawman. I was explaining the why it matters, not the what. And I needed to do that because you went the semantic route implying that I don’t understand that we have the capability to believe whatever we want.
Not at all. You were specifically excluding subjectivity from commonality--particularly as it pertained to the rationalization of reality. Hence, your mention of "functioning civilizations."

And by the way (given that this complaint is levied to the point of vexation) all arguments are semantic. All arguments outside of mathematics use words and terms. Those words and terms and the syntax their arrangement forms reflect the intentions and meanings of the argument's author. If you don't intend on "arguing semantics," you might as well not argue.

Let’s try this, give me an example of one thing that you know to be objectively true. 
Objectivity is irrational. (And no, I'm not characterizing this statement as objective; this inference is logically necessary.)
FLRW
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@Athias
Despite being written out of large parts of history, atheists thrived in the polytheistic societies of the ancient world – raising considerable doubts about whether humans really are “wired” for religion – a new study suggests.
The claim is the central proposition of a new book by Tim Whitmarsh, Professor of Greek Culture and a Fellow of St John’s College, University of Cambridge. In it, he suggests that atheism – which is typically seen as a modern phenomenon – was not just common in ancient Greece and pre-Christian Rome, but probably flourished more in those societies than in most civilisations since.
As a result, the study challenges two assumptions that prop up current debates between atheists and believers: Firstly, the idea that atheism is a modern point of view, and second, the idea of “religious universalism” – that humans are naturally predisposed, or “wired”, to believe in gods.
The book, entitled Battling The Gods,  launched in Cambridge on February 16, 2016.
“We tend to see atheism as an idea that has only recently emerged in secular Western societies,” Whitmarsh said. “The rhetoric used to describe it is hyper-modern. In fact, early societies were far more capable than many since of containing atheism within the spectrum of what they considered normal.”
“Rather than making judgements based on scientific reason, these early atheists were making what seem to be universal objections about the paradoxical nature of religion – the fact that it asks you to accept things that aren’t intuitively there in your world. The fact that this was happening thousands of years ago suggests that forms of disbelief can exist in all cultures, and probably always have.”
    This goes along with my theory that people who saw and heard gods speaking to them had numerous brain lesions.
Polytheist-Witch
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You don't think like me so you must have numerous brain lesions is a new one, congratulations. 
FLRW
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@Polytheist-Witch

What explains the 2500 gods Man has had?


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@FLRW
Because there are that many.
zedvictor4
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@Polytheist-Witch
Well...As far as we can be certain, there are none at all.

Though for sure, fantasy is limitless.
Polytheist-Witch
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Yet here you all are. 
Double_R
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@Athias
How is your perception of reality distinct from your conception of reality? If as you mentioned above, everyone has their own biases, and said biases will be applied to all that which one believes, then how does the concept of reality escape bias?
Congratulations, you’ve discovered the problem of infinite regress.

And by the way (given that this complaint is levied to the point of vexation) all arguments are semantic. All arguments outside of mathematics use words and terms. Those words and terms and the syntax their arrangement forms reflect the intentions and meanings of the argument's author. If you don't intend on "arguing semantics," you might as well not argue.
The term semantics has an actual meaning, and that meaning is not “to argue”. How many times are you going to perfectly demonstrate the nuclear method while claiming you are not using it?

give me an example of one thing that you know to be objectively true. 
Objectivity is irrational.
Point proven yet again.
Athias
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@FLRW
Despite being written out of large parts of history, atheists thrived in the polytheistic societies of the ancient world – raising considerable doubts about whether humans really are “wired” for religion – a new study suggests.
The claim is the central proposition of a new book by Tim Whitmarsh, Professor of Greek Culture and a Fellow of St John’s College, University of Cambridge. In it, he suggests that atheism – which is typically seen as a modern phenomenon – was not just common in ancient Greece and pre-Christian Rome, but probably flourished more in those societies than in most civilisations since.
As a result, the study challenges two assumptions that prop up current debates between atheists and believers: Firstly, the idea that atheism is a modern point of view, and second, the idea of “religious universalism” – that humans are naturally predisposed, or “wired”, to believe in gods.
The book, entitled Battling The Gods,  launched in Cambridge on February 16, 2016.
“We tend to see atheism as an idea that has only recently emerged in secular Western societies,” Whitmarsh said. “The rhetoric used to describe it is hyper-modern. In fact, early societies were far more capable than many since of containing atheism within the spectrum of what they considered normal.”
“Rather than making judgements based on scientific reason, these early atheists were making what seem to be universal objections about the paradoxical nature of religion – the fact that it asks you to accept things that aren’t intuitively there in your world. The fact that this was happening thousands of years ago suggests that forms of disbelief can exist in all cultures, and probably always have.”
My criticism of how (some) atheists debate religion has nothing to do with whether atheism is a modern point of view or a counterpoint to religious universalism. My criticism is centered on the hypocrisy/inconsistency of said atheists when arguing that which is inside one's head, and that which they allege is not.

This goes along with my theory that people who saw and heard gods speaking to them had numerous brain lesions.
At best, this speculation would only render that these brains, which I assume you're alleging informs the perception of these gods, were aberrant. Not that their experiences were faulty or nonexistent (irrational.)

What explains the 2500 gods Man has had?
Belief.






Athias
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@Double_R
Congratulations, you’ve discovered the problem of infinite regress.
It is only a problem to those who seek to perpetuate irrationality.

The term semantics has an actual meaning, and that meaning is not “to argue”. How many times are you going to perfectly demonstrate the nuclear method while claiming you are not using it?
I neither suggested nor stated that semantics=argue. I said all arguments are semantic (adj) which delineates a reference to meaning, language, and logic.

Point proven yet again.
You have proven nothing. I've explicitly explained the reason objectivity is irrational. If you intend on providing a counterpoint, then please do. What is your definition of "objectivity" and how does its description inform the rationality you allege?


Double_R
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You have proven nothing. I've explicitly explained the reason objectivity is irrational.
You seem to have forgotten what this is about and how we got here. This is about your criticism of atheists and why it is meaningless. Let’s look back where it started...

so when I challenge [atheists] to substantiate that their arguments or their empirical observations extend beyond the notions on which they premise them, they can't.
But your “challenge” is nothing more than an appeal to infinite regress. Ultimately, we all have to rely on our own senses and reasoning to form conclusions. So what? That does not equate a theist believing in something without evidence to an atheist rejecting a claim because there is no evidence. You’ll probably respond by claiming you weren’t equating the two, and if so I ask, then what is your point? Why should any atheist care about anything you are saying here?
Athias
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@Double_R
You seem to have forgotten what this is about and how we got here.
Seem is not an argument, and no I haven't forgotten.

This is about your criticism of atheists and why it is meaningless.
And here you are engaging me on the subject. Is there no meaning to that?

But your “challenge” is nothing more than an appeal to infinite regress.
No, it is not an appeal to an infinite regress. I've neither demanded nor required justification for infinitely regressive premises.

Ultimately, we all have to rely on our own senses and reasoning to form conclusions. So what?
So what? Your conclusions are inside your head.

That does not equate a theist believing in something without evidence to an atheist rejecting a claim because there is no evidence.
And this is a distinction in value.

You’ll probably respond by claiming you weren’t equating the two
It's not that I'll "probably respond by claiming [I wasn't] equating the two." I have already responded as much, numerous times.

and if so I ask, then what is your point?
My point is, levying the criticism that's one stance, belief, position, affirmation, and the like are based on that which is "insides one head" is not a consistent counterpoint, especially considering that the premises on which atheists base their stance, belief, position, affirmation, and the like are also based on that which is "inside their heads." The distinction between these positions is inextricably and inescapably one of value. This however has not sufficed for you since your contention operates on the assumption of objectivity, which I've already explained is irrational.
Double_R
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@Athias
The distinction between these positions is inextricably and inescapably one of value.
So what? Why should anyone care that it comes down to a distinction of values? What is your point?

The reason it does not suffice to me is because you continue to argue that you are not equating these things as you are equating them. Values are arbitrary and subjective, so arguing that believing in something without evidence, and rejecting a claim because there is no evidence are both merely products of our values serves no purpose other than to equate the two as just one person’s values against  another. In other words... the nuclear method.


Athias
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@Double_R
So what? Why should anyone care that it comes down to a distinction of values?
The subject of "care" is a futile criticism especially if one continues to engage.

What is your point?
Since I've already stated my point, I'll merely quote it:

My point is, levying the criticism that one's stance, belief, position, affirmation, and the like are based on that which is "insides one head" is not a consistent counterpoint, especially considering that the premises on which atheists base their stance, belief, position, affirmation, and the like are also based on that which is "inside their heads." The distinction between these positions is inextricably and inescapably one of value. This however has not sufficed for you since your contention operates on the assumption of objectivity, which I've already explained is irrational.


The reason it does not suffice to me is because you continue to argue that you are not equating these things as you are equating them.
Here are my statements:

I never claimed the capacity to "solve" solipsism. I pointed out the hypocrisy in rejecting God because he is allegedly based on a conception borne from "inside one's head" when the very standards which inform one's  rejection is based on conceptions borne "inside one's head." Now you can argue that there's no "equivalence" between the former and the latter, but that does not changed that these are still value-based.

And once again, the equivalence I drew did not, and does not extend beyond the fact that both are inside one's head.

Values are arbitrary
Not necessarily.

and subjective
Yes.

so arguing that believing in something without evidence, and rejecting a claim because there is no evidence are both merely products of our values
Yes.

serves no purpose other than to equate the two as just one person’s values against  another.
Non sequitur. Values can differ.

In other words... the nuclear method.
Non sequitur. This conclusion is rendered through the presumption that these debates and discussion have extended or can extend beyond/outside of conflicts of value statements. THEY CANNOT. This is tautological.

You have the floor. Rationalize objectivity. If you cannot, then why are you pushing back? You've already conceded that your conclusions cannot escape your bias, so what is your point?
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@Athias

This conclusion is rendered through the presumption that these debates and discussion have extended or can extend beyond/outside of conflicts of value statements.
No, it’s rendered through the conclusion that the point you keep making serves no purpose other than to equate belief without evidence to withholding belief in the absence of evidence, and you claim that’s not what you’re doing but your argument is that the latter cannot criticize the former because both are “inside their heads”. Pointing to the commonality between the two as a means of portraying them on equal footing is literally what it means to equate.

But the real problem with your “counter” is the fact that the entire point of the atheist statement you are attacking (that the theist’s belief is inside their heads) is to accuse the theist of disregarding (aka not valuing) reason as a means of reaching their conclusions. So to respond by essentially arguing “well reason is just your value” is absurd. No shit it’s my value and not yours, that’s the entire point of me telling you it’s inside your head. If you take issue with that then change it, if you don’t then own it. But stop trying to obfuscate by talking about whether objectivity is ultimately rational or whether it’s possible to arrive at a conclusion without value driven  bias. All of that is well beyond the point.
Athias
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@Double_R
Since you've conveyed no intention of representing my argument accurately, but instead presented your projected impressions of it, I'll just quote myself in response since I've already addressed your points.

You:
No, it’s rendered through the conclusion that the point you keep making serves no purpose other than to equate belief without evidence to withholding belief in the absence of evidence, and you claim that’s not what you’re doing but your argument is that the latter cannot criticize the former because both are “inside their heads”
I:
And once again, the equivalence I drew did not, and does not extend beyond the fact that both are inside one's head.
I:
Knowledge is subjective--repetitive, I know . Why would one then suggest that "it all be blown up" because its subjective? One could still criticize the opinions of another on the grounds of his or her own values.

You:
Pointing to the commonality between the two as a means of portraying them on equal footing is literally what it means to equate.
I:
And once again, the equivalence I drew did not, and does not extend beyond the fact that both are inside one's head.

You:
So to respond by essentially arguing “well reason is just your value” is absurd. No shit it’s my value and not yours, that’s the entire point of me telling you it’s inside your head.
I:
A typical atheist argument is rather simplistic. It's easy to reduce and deconstruct. I have to neither guess at nor change its meaning. For example, why would one require evidence in accordance to the standards you've endorsed? To inform a notion's consistency with assumptions of that which lies outside one's head? That's all still inside one's head.
You:
But stop trying to obfuscate by talking about whether objectivity is ultimately rational or whether it’s possible to arrive at a conclusion without value driven  bias. All of that is well beyond the point.
I:
Knowledge is subjective--repetitive, I know . Why would one then suggest that "it all be blown up" because its subjective?
You:
Calling it subjective is blowing it up. The point of the nuclear method is to get rid of the concept of right vs wrong when assessing statements about reality, thereby allowing the individual to believe anything they want. Arguing that anything we consider to be knowledge is subject to nothing more than value driven standards accomplishes exactly that.
You:
No shit it’s my value and not yours, that’s the entire point of me telling you it’s inside your head. If you take issue with that then change it, if you don’t then own it.
I:
No, they're stating that your standards of evaluation are different and/or undermine my standards of evaluation according to my standards of evaluation. The standards you accept are based on your values.


----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Would you like to own your concession to the very point that I was making?


But stop trying to obfuscate by talking about whether objectivity is ultimately rational or whether it’s possible to arrive at a conclusion without value driven  bias. All of that is well beyond the point.
The entire basis of your characterizing my argument as "the nuclear method" is that it pooh-pooh's on objectivity. And here's my proof:

Calling it subjective is blowing it up. The point of the nuclear method is to get rid of the concept of right vs wrong when assessing statements about reality, thereby allowing the individual to believe anything they want. Arguing that anything we consider to be knowledge is subject to nothing more than value driven standards accomplishes exactly that.
So no, it is not "well beyond the point." Its validation is the primary premise of your contention. So validate your premise: rationalize objectivity. Otherwise, what is the point behind your contention? You've already conceded that the conclusions atheists render are value-based. What is there left to argue? If you've acknowledged that objectivity is irrational, then what is the basis of your "nuclear method" argument? Democracy?

If you haven't conceded to the irrationality of objectivity, then provide a counterargument to that which I've already explained.


FLRW
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This is from the godisimaginary.com website.
The most common rationalization for the lack of scientific evidence is the "God must remain hidden" argument. See this proof for details.
Many believers try to rationalize God's existence by saying something like this: "The existence of the universe proves God's existence. Something had to create the universe. Science has no explanation for the universe's creation. Therefore, God created it."
The way to understand that this is a rationalization is to look back in history. Ancient people, before they had science, explained many things that they did not understand with "gods." There have been sun gods, thunder gods, fertility gods, rain gods, etc.
The Bible works the same way. It tries to explain many things that its ancient authors did not understand by attributing them in God. For example, if you read Genesis 9:12-13 you will find this:
    And God said, "This is the sign of the covenant which I make between me and you and every living creature that is with you, for all future generations: I set my bow in the cloud, and it shall be a sign of the covenant between me and the earth..."
This is the Bible's explanation of rainbows. Of course we now know that rainbows are a prismatic effect of raindrops. In the same way, Genesis chapter 3 tries to explain why human childbirth is so painful and Genesis chapter 11 tries to explain why there are so many human languages. These are myths, nothing more.In the same way, Genesis chapter 1 contains the Bible's creation myth. The creation of the universe and life is attributed to God. We already know that God had nothing to do with the creation of life (click here), but religious people still try to attribute the creation of the universe to God.
The fact is, God had nothing to do with the creation of the universe, in the same way that God has nothing to do with the sun rising or rainbows appearing. Science does not have a complete explanation for the universe's creation, yet. While it is true that science does not yet know everything there is to know about the universe, scientists will eventually figure it out. When they do, what they will find is that nature created the universe, not an imaginary being.

Athias
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@FLRW
This is the Bible's explanation of rainbows. Of course we now know that rainbows are a prismatic effect of raindrops.
We "now know"? Or are you simply offering a rationalization which applies a different metric?

The fact is, God had nothing to do with the creation of the universe
Please demonstrate.

in the same way that God has nothing to do with the sun rising or rainbows appearing
Again, demonstrate.

Science does not have a complete explanation for the universe's creation, yet.
"Yet"? How do you know this?

While it is true that science does not yet know everything there is to know about the universe, scientists will eventually figure it out.
What does Science currently lack that hampers it from figuring everything out about the universe?

When they do, what they will find is that nature created the universe, not an imaginary being.
Nature is imaginary. Your perception of nature is imaginary. Your experience of nature is imaginary. This is more a conflict between imaginary "design" and imaginary "randomness."

Note: when I state "imaginary," I do not mean, "not real." I mean, imagined, to conceive in the mind, to create a thought in the mind, etc.

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No, it’s rendered through the conclusion that the point you keep making serves no purpose other than to equate belief without evidence to withholding belief in the absence of evidence, and you claim that’s not what you’re doing but your argument is that the latter cannot criticize the former because both are “inside their heads”
I:
And once again, the equivalence I drew did not, and does not extend beyond the fact that both are inside one's head.

You’re the guy who responds to someone saying the earth is round by saying “no, it’s an oblate spheroid” then when people react with annoyance, spend the next hour justifying your response by explaining how it *is* an oblate spheroid. No awareness of the fact that what people are reacting to is not whether you are factually correct but the fact that you are pretending to raise the level of the conversation while you’re really just dumbing it down.

Yes, thinking occurs inside our heads. Congratulations. I was trying to give you credit for having a greater point that you thought meaningful in your conversation with atheists but apparently that really is all there was to it.

You've already conceded that the conclusions atheists render are value-based.
I conceded that conclusions are value based, because that is what follows when we accept the very concept of logic as a value.

Engagement in any type of rational conversation presupposes that both parties value logic, so calling someone’s conclusions value-based is meaningless, and I also find it to be intellectually dishonest because it purports to to do something (raising the level of the conversation) that it’s not. But that last part of course assumes that there is a point to making this statement, which apparently is not always the case.

So validate your premise: rationalize objectivity.
This isn’t my premise, and I haven’t responded to it because it’s an absurd ask. Rationalization is a process by which conclusions are derived, objectivity is a category of a particular type of conclusion. You don’t rationalize a category, you rationalize whether something belongs in that category.

2+2=4 is objective. That means that I have assessed it’s truth value as not subject to opinion. I used logic to arrive at that assessment because that is the only way this can be done. When we talk about objectivity, this is what we’re talking about. The fact that this  process takes place inside my head does not negate the fact that there is a big difference between this, and the problem of someone believing  things without evidence. Your criticism of atheists being inconsistent is just plain wrong because you are ignoring that difference in order to point to the similarity. That’s dishonest, which is and has been my point from the start.
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@Double_R
You’re the guy who responds to someone saying the earth is round by saying “no, it’s an oblate spheroid” then when people react with annoyance, spend the next hour justifying your response by explaining how it *is* an oblate spheroid
Irrelevant.

Yes, thinking occurs inside our heads. Congratulations. I was trying to give you credit for having a greater point that you thought meaningful in your conversation with atheists but apparently that really is all there was to it.
I haven't solicited, demanded, or asked for your "credit." And thinking occurs in one's head is redundant. Go back to my first argument and read it comprehensively.

I conceded that conclusions are value based, because that is what follows when we accept the very concept of logic as a value.
And atheists aren't exempt from this, making this statement entirely redundant.

Engagement in any type of rational conversation presupposes that both parties value logic, so calling someone’s conclusions value-based is meaningless
And yet, once again, here you are still engaging me.

and I also find it to be intellectually dishonest because it purports to to do something (raising the level of the conversation) that it’s not
That is your impression; that is your projection; that has nothing to do with me especially in light of your incapacity to read my mind.

But that last part of course assumes that there is a point to making this statement, which apparently is not always the case.
Of course there's a point. I made my point. You rejected and criticized my point by suggesting that it was a "nuclear method." When asked to substantiate this criticism, you had nothing more to offer than fluff--i.e. democracy, and functioning civilization, etc. After correctly gauging that your premise was based on the notion of objectivity, I proceeded to explain the irrationality of objectivity. With no other recourse to substantiate your criticism, you have now resorted to criticizing my motives.

You have nothing left to argue. Your criticism from the very beginning presumed that these value-based positions and the standards on which they are based extended beyond subjectivity. "Beyond subjectivity" is irrational, and you don't know how to defend it. Hence, you offer more fluff. Exhibit A:

You’re the guy who responds to someone saying the earth is round by saying “no, it’s an oblate spheroid” then when people react with annoyance, spend the next hour justifying your response by explaining how it *is* an oblate spheroid

This isn’t my premise
Yes it is. And you will demonstrate this below.

I haven’t responded to it because it’s an absurd ask.
Of course it's an absurd task.

You don’t rationalize a category, you rationalize whether something belongs in that category.
Fluff. "Categories" apply metrics by which they either index or modify that which belongs.


2+2=4 is objective. That means that I have assessed it’s truth value as not subject to opinion. I used logic to arrive at that assessment because that is the only way this can be done. When we talk about objectivity, this is what we’re talking about. The fact that this  process takes place inside my head does not negate the fact that there is a big difference between this, and the problem of someone believing  things without evidence.
You see? I told you your premise was objectivity. (Notice how you brought it right back to your argument.) And, you used an inept example. "2+2=4" is NOT objective. Not even in the slightest. Mathematics, and by extension arithmetic, is abstract. Numbers are abstract. They are neither found in nature, nor independent of qualia. It's akin to stating: red + blue = purple. Numbers are assigned forms.

And note: objectivity =/= consensus.

Your criticism of atheists being inconsistent is just plain wrong
But you have yet to demonstrate this by any sufficient measure.

because you are ignoring that difference in order to point to the similarity
No, I'm not ignoring. I'm pointing out that criticizing a position in a context that is identical to that on which the standards of one's own position is based is inconsistent. And while I do acknowledge the distinction in values, they are irrelevant to my criticism.

That’s dishonest, which is and has been my point from the start.
That is a lie. Your point from the start was to insinuate that the suggestion of knowledge as subjective was identical to "blowing it all up" and that it wasn't beneficial to society to sustain this "warped thinking."


Ramshutu
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@Athias
And, you used an inept example. "2+2=4" is NOT objective. Not even in the slightest. Mathematics, and by extension arithmetic, is abstract. Numbers are abstract. They are neither found in nature, nor independent of qualia. It's akin to stating: red + blue = purple. Numbers are assigned forms. 



If you have this number of penguins x x and they meet this number of penguins x x  them there will be this many penguins x x x x.

That x x is demoted as 2, and x x x x is demoted as 4 is not abstract, but semantics. The physical quantity they are expressing is still a physical quantity; with no amount of abstract silliness will ever allow you to successfully make
x x x x x out of adding x x and x x.

While mathematical operations often get abstract, like a Laplace transform, mathematics is inherently falls down to a descriptive system of the physical world that may differ in representation (such as symbols used, or numeric base), but isn’t able to manifestly change what is being described.

The word of digits of pi, or prime numbers are a mathematical description of an aspect of the physical world; and any two individuals from any two cultures, including aliens could independently deduce then value of Pi, or the first 100 prime numbers and convey that information to the other.

In that respect, mathematics is absolutely objective.
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@Ramshutu
If you have this number of penguins x x and they meet this number of penguins x x  them there will be this many penguins x x x x.

That x x is demoted as 2, and x x x x is demoted as 4 is not abstract, but semantics. The physical quantity they are expressing is still a physical quantity; with no amount of abstract silliness will ever allow you to successfully make
x x x x x out of adding x x and x x.

While mathematical operations often get abstract, like a Laplace transform, mathematics is inherently falls down to a descriptive system of the physical world that may differ in representation (such as symbols used, or numeric base), but isn’t able to manifestly change what is being described.

The word of digits of pi, or prime numbers are a mathematical description of an aspect of the physical world; and any two individuals from any two cultures, including aliens could independently deduce then value of Pi, or the first 100 prime numbers and convey that information to the other.
You need not explain to me Mathematics. I know what it is. And what you've described does not inform objectivity; what you've described informs logic. That is, "abstract silliness" does not "allow" one to derive xxxxx out of adding xx and xx because xx +xx = xxxx is logically necessary (not objective = independent of qualia.) One could attempt to derive the number five from adding two and two, but that would be inconsistent with the abstract's logic. It would be inconsistent with the accepted standard. And as I informed DoubleR, objectivity =/= consensus. If this standard is overhauled, then it's very possible that 2+2=5. Because numbers are just forms.

In that respect, mathematics is absolutely objective.
No, it absolutely is not. You are referring to consensus (inter-subjectivity.) That is not objectivity (controlled independent of qualia and gnosis.)

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@Athias
You have nothing left to argue.
An argument, by definition, utilizes logic. So when one claims logic is a value, and then criticizes another’s argument as “values based”, you’re right, there’s nothing left that person can possibly argue. This is what is called the nuclear method.

That is a lie. Your point from the start was to insinuate that the suggestion of knowledge as subjective was identical to "blowing it all up"
Aka the nuclear method.  The reason why this is a problem is because it is dishonest. No lie there. It’s been the point since the start.

"2+2=4" is NOT objective. Not even in the slightest.
It’s literally the prime example of an objective statement. This is the point where one normally realizes the depths the logical hole they’ve dug themselves into so I’m just going to leave it there.
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@Double_R
An argument, by definition, utilizes logic. So when one claims logic is a value, and then criticizes another’s argument as “values based”, you’re right, there’s nothing left that person can possibly argue. This is what is called the nuclear method.
Fluff.

Aka the nuclear method.  The reason why this is a problem is because it is dishonest. No lie there. It’s been the point since the start.
Another lie. Here is what you stated, verbatim:

I don’t understand why I need to explain this but clearly I do; in order for us to function as a civilization we have to share a common sense of reality so that we can solve our problems and advance our interests. The “nuclear method” is problematic because it seeks to undermine the very foundation that all of us sit on in our efforts to achieve that common sense of reality. In other words, it’s selfishly destructive.

Exactly. So when someone says the earth is flat, to say they’re wrong is to merely assert values. According to this kind of warped thinking we could never make progress on a disagreement because all it boils down to is our opinion. We might as well debate whether chocolate is better than strawberry.

It’s absurd, and we would never prosper as a society by adopting this kind of thinking.

It accomplishes removing the presumption of the indisputable.
That’s not a good thing. The concept of the indisputable is what, for example, holds democracies together. Once upon a time the guy who received more votes was indisputably the president. But now because we have had a president who saw the opening that you are trying to pry open, we live in a society where nearly half the population lives in a delusion that he really won, so instead of solving our problems were now in a war over reality itself.

To claim knowledge about something is to claim that you are right about that something. i.e. “I am right that the earth is round”. But your own value driven standards do not allow for you to be right because if knowledge is all subjective the there is no such thing as right.
Dishonesty had nothing to do with it. "Dishonesty" is a recent tact you've employed to attack my motives. You are attacking my motives because you have nothing left to argue.

It’s literally the prime example of an objective statement.
No, it is not. You've described only, at best, a consensus. That is not the same as objectivity. Consensus = shared gnosis. Objectivity = independent of gnosis.

This is the point where one normally realizes the depths the logical hole they’ve dug themselves into so I’m just going to leave it there.
Yes, you have dug yourself quite the hole. If you wish to disengage, then enjoy your night, sir.
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@Athias
You need not explain to me Mathematics. I know what it is. And what you've described does not inform objectivity; what you've described informs logic. 

That is, "abstract silliness" does not "allow" one to derive xxxxx out of adding xx and xx because xx +xx = xxxx is logically necessary (not objective = independent of qualia.) One could attempt to derive the number five from adding two and two, but that would be inconsistent with the abstract's logic. It would be inconsistent with the accepted standard. And as I informed DoubleR, objectivity =/= consensus. 

Physical quantities are objective. There relationships are objective and can be described externally to maths by referencing various Physical quantities alone. I don’t have to use numbers, I can use things like, the number of fingers a typical human has, or eyes (assuming you’re not disfigured in some way); I can describe pythagorous theory by drawing two squares and 6 triangles.

“The abstracts logic” - the logical rules of maths - are derived from Objective observable physical relationships.

2+2=4 not because of an arbitrary subjective whim, but because that’s the relationship between physical quantities.

If you marked a finger for each ear and eye you have, one hand would be unmarked, and you would have a number of fingers equal to the number of heads you have unmarked on the other. 

The relationship is objective; and the basis of mathematical logic is describing that objective relationship. 

As maths is describing objective things the logic of maths is objectively verifiable and independently validatable.

Thus it is objective - not consensus, whatever that means - 2+2=4 not because everyone says so, but because it’s describing an objective physical relationship.


If this standard is overhauled, then it's very possible that 2+2=5. Because numbers are just forms.
Maths is at its basic a logical description of the relationships between objective physical quantities

“Is this standard is overhauled”, basically means if you made maths not maths any more. maths is based on an objective standard ; the only way to overhaul that standard, is to make It not objective any more:  you have to remove the very thing that makes mathematics objective. 

As this seems to be the basis for you claiming that maths is not objective - your argument boils down to saying that maths is not objective, because if you made it not objective, it’s not objective.


That’s just absurd.