Instigator / Pro
1500
rating
0
debates
0.0%
won
Topic
#5878

The Bible is not corrupted according to the Qur'an

Status
Debating

Waiting for the next argument from the instigator.

Round will be automatically forfeited in:

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Parameters
Publication date
Last updated date
Type
Standard
Number of rounds
5
Time for argument
Two weeks
Max argument characters
30,000
Voting period
Two months
Point system
Multiple criterions
Voting system
Open
Contender / Con
1500
rating
2
debates
50.0%
won
Description

In this debate it will be up to Pro to affirm:
That the Qur'an doesn't say the Bible is corrupted.

It will be up to Con to negate:
That the Qur'an doesn't say the Bible is corrupted.

Round 1
Pro
#1
Forfeited
Con
#2
hmmm, what a shame, I was truly interested in hearing your side. I believe you have somethings going on in life, it happens. Problem is, I don't know.....What should I do now. Usually, I am the con, I should respond to your claims, but there is none around. I guess, for the sake fact of not just writing an empty word, I shall start by responding to one common verse that supposedly support your side, just so we can come straight to the point when you come:

1- Surah Al-Ma'idah (5:46-47):
“And We sent, following in their footsteps, Jesus, the son of Mary, confirming that which came before him in the Torah; and We gave him the Gospel, in which was guidance and light and confirming that which preceded it in the Torah as guidance and instruction for the righteous. And let the People of the Gospel judge by what Allah has revealed therein.”
so, let's start with this one, as far as I understand, Christens believe this verse confirms the divinity of the bible by exclusively telling them to judge by it. There are a lot of problems in this reasoning, but for the sake the debate's content, I am only going to address the bible in my claims, not the Torah (yes I know, old testament and stuff, but as far as I am concerned, the new testament and the old testament are connected and inseparable, proving one doesn't work simply disqualifies the entire bible....I guess at least). so, let us analyse the problems:
   1-gospel, not gospels:
  the Quran is clear, the Injil (gospel) is one book, no collections, no human testimonies. the new testament can't be the gospel referred to in the verse because simply it isn't one book by one author(the bare minimum). the new testament is divided onto 4 aspects each having a different author. in some cases, events are only supported (I mean written) by 1 author. sometimes, details may differ between the anonymous authors of the bible. 
 2- divinity (requirements):
  In Islam, you can't just call any book divine, there are requirements. The one we are interested in here is the source. In Islam, for a book to be qualified as divine, it needs two requirements: 
a- every word of that book must originate from Allah
b - it needs to have been delivered by a prophet ( at least, a prophet must testify to the existence of this verse or book)
now, you may argue as you please that the new testament was made by the writers at the time of Isa(Jesus) , but "a" already disproves this point, the gospels of the new testament were written by human hands, they were written in their style, they did not originate from Allah. In fact, this alone proves the new testament is not fully from Allah (I count that what Isa was said to have said may have some truth) meaning it was corrupted.
3-fvf the meaning of the verse:
 for this one, I'd like an example, in Morocco, a part of the population are Jewish, they are native to the land. you see, these people live in a Muslim country, under this light, one may assume they will have trouble with intimate businesses because the laws of the country are derived from Islamic teachings. But that is not the case, the Jewish population have their own courts, any disputes between them are solved by their religious laws, marriage, divorce....Are settled in their courts. Why am I suddenly saying this? Well, it's because this is one of the meanings behind this verse. Muslims won't force you into their religion, they won't even force you to use their laws in your daily life. you can use the laws Allah revealed in your religion. Where does this change? well, in broader terms; wars, disputes between communities, civil uprising....for these things, 5:48 comes into play, asserting the Quran as the more dominant and the one to be chosen. This is not the Quran confirming the bible to be true, this is simply it telling you that the people of the book wouldn't be forced to follow the Quran rulings.
 4- "by what Allah has revealed therein":
 this is the final point I'll discuss, but....It's the problematic one. You see, the verse was clear, the people of the Gospel should judge "by what Allah has revealed therein", the question is, what did Allah truly reveal in the gospel? this point brings the circular reasoning of the argument, christens need to follow what Allah revealed in the bible, to do that the christens need to know what Allah revealed in the bible, bringing us back to the question, is the bible corrupted? Even if 90% of the bible is uncorrupted, you can never know.
this isn't much, and if you weren't thinking of using this verse, pretend this answer didn't exist, I just didn't want to leave this round empty.
Round 2
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Round 3
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Round 4
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Round 5
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