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#4456

Con has to prove that the Quran contains contradiction

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The debate is finished. The distribution of the voting points and the winner are presented below.

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After 1 vote and with 3 points ahead, the winner is...

YouFound_Lxam
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Description

I am going to do this debate again to give anyone else the chance to challenge me on the Quran.

I am Pro, Con needs to prove that the Quran contains contradictions

Round 1
Pro
#1
Welcome to another debate. I want to debate this topic again to see if there are any new challengers who believe there are contradictions within the Quran. 

As always, the BOP is on Con here, to prove that there are contradictions within the Holy Quran. 

Good luck.
Con
#2
Thank you for this debate, I will do my best to prove to you that the Qur'an contains contradictions.

For my first argument, I will start off by listing the many contradictions within the Qur'an. After, it is up to you to explain to me why each accusation is in fact not a contradiction, and your justification must line up with the Qur'an as well. 

1. Was man created from blood, clay, dust, or nothing?
Here are the scriptures:
“Created man, out of a (mere) clot of congealed blood,” (96:2).
We created man from sounding clay, from mud moulded into shape, (15:26).
“The similitude of Jesus before Allah is as that of Adam; He created him from dust, then said to him: “Be”. And he was,” (3:59).
“But does not man call to mind that We created him before out of nothing?” (19:67, Yusuf Ali). Also, 52:35).
He has created man from a sperm-drop; and behold this same (man) becomes an open disputer! (16:4).

The Qur'an has many passages of scripture in which it states that man was created from many different things. I have heard some justification for this contradiction, some being quite convincing, but I would like your take on these scriptures. 

Is there or is there not compulsion in Islam according to the Qur’an?
Here are the scriptures: 
Let there be no compulsion in religion: Truth stands out clear from Error: whoever rejects evil and believes in Allah hath grasped the most trustworthy hand-hold, that never breaks. And Allah heareth and knoweth all things,” (2:256).
“And an announcement from Allah and His Messenger, to the people (assembled) on the day of the Great Pilgrimage, – that Allah and His Messenger dissolve (treaty) obligations with the Pagans. If then, ye repent, it were best for you; but if ye turn away, know ye that ye cannot frustrate Allah. And proclaim a grievous penalty to those who reject Faith,” (9:3).
“But when the forbidden months are past, then fight and slay the Pagans wherever ye find them, and seize them, beleaguer them, and lie in wait for them in every stratagem (of war); but if they repent, and establish regular prayers and practice regular charity, then open the way for them: for Allah is Oft-forgiving, Most Merciful,” (9:5).
"Fight those who believe not in Allah nor the Last Day, nor hold that forbidden which hath been forbidden by Allah and His Messenger, nor acknowledge the religion of Truth, (even if they are) of the People of the Book, until they pay the Jizya with willing submission, and feel themselves subdued,” (9:29).

The Qur'an is not very clear when it comes to compulsion. Some scriptures say that religion shouldn't have compulsion, while the others claim that Muslims should fight and slay those who disagree, or don't accept Allah as God. 

Was the first Muslim Muhammad, Abraham, Jacob, or Moses?
Here are the scriptures: 
And I [Muhammad] am commanded to be the first of those who bow to Allah in Islam,” (39:12).
When Moses came to the place appointed by Us, and his Lord addressed him, He said: “O my Lord! show (Thyself) to me, that I may look upon thee.” Allah said: “By no means canst thou see Me (direct); But look upon the mount; if it abide in its place, then shalt thou see Me.” When his Lord manifested His glory on the Mount, He made it as dust. And Moses fell down in a swoon. When he recovered his senses he said: “Glory be to Thee! to Thee I turn in repentance, and I am the first to believe.” (7:143).
“And this was the legacy that Abraham left to his sons, and so did Jacob; “Oh my sons! Allah hath chosen the Faith for you; then die not except in the Faith of Islam,” (2:132).

The Qur'an states that both Muhammad, Abraham, Jacob, and Moses were the first Muslims. How is it possible for 4 people to be the first?

Does Allah forgive or not forgive those who worship false gods?
Here are the scriptures:
Allah forgiveth not that partners should be set up with Him; but He forgiveth anything else, to whom He pleaseth; to set up partners with Allah is to devise a sin Most heinous indeed,” (4:48).  Also found in 4:116
The people of the Book ask thee to cause a book to descend to them from heaven: Indeed they asked Moses for an even greater (miracle), for they said: “Show us Allah in public,” but they were dazed for their presumption, with thunder and lightning. Yet they worshipped the calf even after clear signs had come to them; even so we forgave them; and gave Moses manifest proofs of authority,” (4:153).

This one is a bit of a stretch, but I would still like your opinion on how you would explain this.

Are Allah’s decrees changed or not?
Here are the scriptures:
“Rejected were the messengers before thee: with patience and constancy they bore their rejection and their wrongs until Our aid did reach them: there is none that can alter the words (and decrees) of Allah. Already hast thou received some account of those messengers,” (6:34).
“The word of thy Lord doth find its fulfillment in truth and in justice: None can change His words: for He is the one who heareth and knoweth all, (6:115).
None of Our revelations do We abrogate or cause to be forgotten, but We substitute something better or similar: Knowest thou not that Allah Hath power over all things?” (2:106).
When We substitute one revelation for another,- and Allah knows best what He reveals (in stages),- they say, “Thou art but a forger”: but most of them understand not,” (16:101).

This one is pretty self explanatory.

Was Pharaoh killed by drowning?
Here are the scriptures:
“We took the Children of Israel across the sea: Pharaoh and his hosts followed them in insolence and spite. At length, when overwhelmed with the flood, he said: “I believe that there is no god except Him Whom the Children of Israel believe in: I am of those who submit (to Allah in Islam). (It was said to him): “Ah now!- But a little while before, wast thou in rebellion!- and thou didst mischief (and violence)!  This day shall We save thee in the body, that thou mayest be a sign to those who come after thee! but verily, many among mankind are heedless of Our Signs!” (10:90-92).
Moses said, “Thou knowest well that these things have been sent down by none but the Lord of the heavens and the earth as eye-opening evidence: and I consider thee indeed, O Pharaoh, to be one doomed to destruction!”  So he resolved to remove them from the face of the earth: but We did drown him and all who were with him,” (17:102-103).

So was Pharaoh saved, or was he drowned?

Is wine consumption good or bad?
Here are the scriptures:
O ye who believe! Intoxicants and gambling, (dedication of) stones, and (divination by) arrows, are an abomination,–of Satan’s handwork: eschew such (abomination), that ye may prosper,” (5:90).
(Here is) a Parable of the Garden which the righteous are promised: in it are rivers of water incorruptible; rivers of milk of which the taste never changes; rivers of wine, a joy to those who drink; and rivers of honey pure and clear. In it there are for them all kinds of fruits; and Grace from their Lord. (Can those in such Bliss) be compared to such as shall dwell forever in the Fire, and be given, to drink, boiling water, so that it cuts up their bowels (to pieces)?” (47:15).
Truly the Righteous will be in Bliss: On Thrones (of Dignity) will they command a sight (of all things): Thou wilt recognize in their faces the beaming brightness of Bliss. Their thirst will be slaked with Pure Wine sealed,” (83:22-25).

I know this is something that is argued a lot with these type of debates, whether Muslims are allowed to drink and smoke and do things as such. Then why are these things called an abomination? 


These are the only contradictions in the Qur'an that I could find without doing a super deep dive into it. I am sure that there could be more, but for now this is probably an acceptable amount.

So if these aren't contradictions, explain how and why they are not. 
Round 2
Pro
#3
So to clear up, Con has to prove that there is at least 1 contradictions in the Holy Quran. Lets begin. 

https://www.ibnzura.com/contradictions_in_the_quran.php?lang=en- This is the site where Con got his contradictions from, I think. Just a guess for comedic purposes. 

“Created man, out of a (mere) clot of congealed blood,” (96:2).
We created man from sounding clay, from mud moulded into shape, (15:26).
“The similitude of Jesus before Allah is as that of Adam; He created him from dust, then said to him: “Be”. And he was,” (3:59).
“But does not man call to mind that We created him before out of nothing?” (19:67, Yusuf Ali). Also, 52:35).
He has created man from a sperm-drop; and behold this same (man) becomes an open disputer! (16:4).
Which was man created from? 

1 and 5 are talking about babies and how humans begin to develop, the embryology etc. 
Then We made the sperm-drop into a clinging clot, and We made the clot into a lump [of flesh]- 23:14
So the clinging clot is made from the sperm drop. 

2 and 3 and talking about Adam, the first man
˹Remember, O  Prophet˺ when your Lord said to the angels, “I am going to create a human being from sounding clay moulded from black mud. 15:28
Dust, clay and mud are different stages with the creation of Adam.


4 is talking about how man was nothing before. So before man was created, there was no man, pretty self explanatory. 
Or were they created by nothing, or are they ˹their own˺ creators? 52:35
This verse is speaking about those who do not believe in God. It questions do atheists believe they were created by nothing or their own creators?

Sahih International: Does man not remember that We created him before, while he was nothing?
Pickthall: Doth not man remember that We created him before, when he was naught?
Yusuf Ali: But does not man call to mind that We created him before out of nothing?- Meaning man was nothing before, and God created man. 
Shakir: Does not man remember that We created him before, when he was nothing?
Muhammad Sarwar: Does he not remember that We created him when he did not exist?
Mohsin Khan: Does not man remember that We created him before, while he was nothing?
Arberry: Will not man remember that We created him aforetime, when he was nothing?

No contradiction here. 

Is there or is there not compulsion in Islam according to the Qur’an?
Here are the scriptures: 
Let there be no compulsion in religion: Truth stands out clear from Error: whoever rejects evil and believes in Allah hath grasped the most trustworthy hand-hold, that never breaks. And Allah heareth and knoweth all things,” (2:256).
“And an announcement from Allah and His Messenger, to the people (assembled) on the day of the Great Pilgrimage, – that Allah and His Messenger dissolve (treaty) obligations with the Pagans. If then, ye repent, it were best for you; but if ye turn away, know ye that ye cannot frustrate Allah. And proclaim a grievous penalty to those who reject Faith,” (9:3).
“But when the forbidden months are past, then fight and slay the Pagans wherever ye find them, and seize them, beleaguer them, and lie in wait for them in every stratagem (of war); but if they repent, and establish regular prayers and practice regular charity, then open the way for them: for Allah is Oft-forgiving, Most Merciful,” (9:5).
"Fight those who believe not in Allah nor the Last Day, nor hold that forbidden which hath been forbidden by Allah and His Messenger, nor acknowledge the religion of Truth, (even if they are) of the People of the Book, until they pay the Jizya with willing submission, and feel themselves subdued,” (9:29).

1. There is no compulsion in religion, meaning you can't force someone to convert to Islam
2. War verse, where two sides are in conflict, there will be prisoners of war. Those who are captured are given options. They can convert to Islam, pay the jizya or face the penalty. Cannot force  anyone to convert to Islam however. 
3. Another war verse, same chapter as number 2. Read from chapter 1 and it talks about how the enemy breaks the peace treaty, still cannot force anyone to convert
4. Another war verse, same chapter, still cannot force anyone to convert. 

No contradiction here. 

Was the first Muslim Muhammad, Abraham, Jacob, or Moses?
Here are the scriptures: 
And I [Muhammad] am commanded to be the first of those who bow to Allah in Islam,” (39:12).
When Moses came to the place appointed by Us, and his Lord addressed him, He said: “O my Lord! show (Thyself) to me, that I may look upon thee.” Allah said: “By no means canst thou see Me (direct); But look upon the mount; if it abide in its place, then shalt thou see Me.” When his Lord manifested His glory on the Mount, He made it as dust. And Moses fell down in a swoon. When he recovered his senses he said: “Glory be to Thee! to Thee I turn in repentance, and I am the first to believe.” (7:143).
“And this was the legacy that Abraham left to his sons, and so did Jacob; “Oh my sons! Allah hath chosen the Faith for you; then die not except in the Faith of Islam,” (2:132).
Adam was in fact the first Muslim ever. 

What does the word Muslim mean? To submit your will to the creator. Every single prophet did this and therefore they were all Muslims by definition and action.  Muhammed (PBUH), Moses (PBUH), Abraham (PBUH) and Jacob (PBUH) were the first Muslims of their times, not the first Muslims ever to exist. 

No contradiction here. 

Does Allah forgive or not forgive those who worship false gods?
Here are the scriptures:
Allah forgiveth not that partners should be set up with Him; but He forgiveth anything else, to whom He pleaseth; to set up partners with Allah is to devise a sin Most heinous indeed,” (4:48).  Also found in 4:116
The people of the Book ask thee to cause a book to descend to them from heaven: Indeed they asked Moses for an even greater (miracle), for they said: “Show us Allah in public,” but they were dazed for their presumption, with thunder and lightning. Yet they worshipped the calf even after clear signs had come to them; even so we forgave them; and gave Moses manifest proofs of authority,” (4:153).
As you said this is a stretch. 

Allah does not forgive associating partners with him and this is called SHIRK. This is an unforgiveable sin because you would not be Muslim at this point as you don't believe in the 1 God. Any other sin, you are still Muslim, but a sinning Muslim. 

With the 4:153 verse, I don't get why Con left out a key part. Let me send the verse. 
Still We forgave them for that ˹after their repentance˺ and gave Moses compelling proof.
The people of Moses repented after associating others with God and God forgave them. 

God forgives anyone who sincerely repents, including the sin Shirk.
However God does not forgive shirk after anyone dies, but by his will he can forgive any other sin after a person dies. 

No contradiction here. 

Are Allah’s decrees changed or not?
Here are the scriptures:
“Rejected were the messengers before thee: with patience and constancy they bore their rejection and their wrongs until Our aid did reach them: there is none that can alter the words (and decrees) of Allah. Already hast thou received some account of those messengers,” (6:34).
“The word of thy Lord doth find its fulfilment in truth and in justice: None can change His words: for He is the one who heareth and knoweth all, (6:115).
None of Our revelations do We abrogate or cause to be forgotten, but We substitute something better or similar: Knowest thou not that Allah Hath power over all things?” (2:106).
When We substitute one revelation for another,- and Allah knows best what He reveals (in stages),- they say, “Thou art but a forger”: but most of them understand not,” (16:101).
I think every translation that you give is from Yusuf Ali, I'm not sure if his translation of the Quran is authentic, it could be but the language and me reading it just seems more Shakespearean than how it should sound like, weird one. 

6:34- Indeed, messengers before you were rejected but patiently endured rejection and persecution until Our help came to them. And Allah’s promise ˹to help˺ is never broken. And you have already received some of the narratives of these messengers.

This verse is not talking about any books, it is Allah's promises. 

The Word of your Lord has been perfected in truth and justice. None can change His Words. And He is the All-Hearing, All- Knowing.- 6:115-  Talking about how none can change Allah's words. 

If We ever abrogate a verse or cause it to be forgotten, We replace it with a better or similar one. Do you not know that Allah is Most Capable of everything?- 2:106- What is 'WE' talking about? It is talking about Allah. Meaning, if Allah causes a verse to be abrogated or forgotten then He replaces it with a better one. It is Allah's will, not humans and it is the same as 16:101. 

No contradiction here. 

So was Pharaoh saved, or was he drowned?
Next one, decided to make it a bit shorter. 

Pharoah drowned but his body was saved and preserved for the later generations to see. It is currently on display and you can visit it. 

No contradiction here, more of a miracle. 

Is wine consumption good or bad?

Again, this one will be short too. 
 

Earthly wine is forbidden because it is an intoxicant. Muslims cannot drink it. Wine in heaven is 'pure' as stated in the verse meaning it won't harm you. It is one of the pleasures in heaven. 

No contradiction here. 

I know this is something that is argued a lot with these type of debates, whether Muslims are allowed to drink and smoke and do things as such. Then why are these things called an abomination? 
It is not even a debate, intoxicants are forbidden. 

So if these aren't contradictions, explain how and why they are not. 
I think I have done so. 


Con
#4
Rebuttals:

1 and 5 are talking about babies and how humans begin to develop, the embryology etc. 
Then We made the sperm-drop into a clinging clot, and We made the clot into a lump [of flesh]- 23:14
So the clinging clot is made from the sperm drop. 

2 and 3 and talking about Adam, the first man
˹Remember, O  Prophet˺ when your Lord said to the angels, “I am going to create a human being from sounding clay moulded from black mud. 15:28
Dust, clay and mud are different stages with the creation of Adam.


4 is talking about how man was nothing before. So before man was created, there was no man, pretty self explanatory. 
Or were they created by nothing, or are they ˹their own˺ creators? 52:35
This verse is speaking about those who do not believe in God. It questions do atheists believe they were created by nothing or their own creators?

Sahih International: Does man not remember that We created him before, while he was nothing?
Pickthall: Doth not man remember that We created him before, when he was naught?
Yusuf Ali: But does not man call to mind that We created him before out of nothing?- Meaning man was nothing before, and God created man. 
Shakir: Does not man remember that We created him before, when he was nothing?
Muhammad Sarwar: Does he not remember that We created him when he did not exist?
Mohsin Khan: Does not man remember that We created him before, while he was nothing?
Arberry: Will not man remember that We created him aforetime, when he was nothing?
If you go to the exact translation of this verse: Then We made the sperm-drop into a clinging clot, and We made the clot into a lump [of flesh]- 23:14
You will find this translation:
And certainly, did We create man from an extract of clay.

It also says: 
Then We made the sperm-drop into a clinging clot, and We made the clot into a lump [of flesh], and We made [from] the lump, bones, and We covered the bones with flesh; then We developed him into another creation. So blessed is Allah, the best of creators.

When it says creators, is it implying more than one creator?

1. There is no compulsion in religion, meaning you can't force someone to convert to Islam
2. War verse, where two sides are in conflict, there will be prisoners of war. Those who are captured are given options. They can convert to Islam, pay the jizya or face the penalty. Cannot force  anyone to convert to Islam however. 
3. Another war verse, same chapter as number 2. Read from chapter 1 and it talks about how the enemy breaks the peace treaty, still cannot force anyone to convert
4. Another war verse, same chapter, still cannot force anyone to convert. 

 Isn't giving someone an option between converting to their religion, and forcing them to convert forcing? 
It's either convert, or don't exist. It's not a decision to convert at that point. It is forcing people to convert. 
So, my question still stands. Is there or is there not compulsion in religion? 

Adam was in fact the first Muslim ever. 

What does the word Muslim mean? To submit your will to the creator. Every single prophet did this and therefore they were all Muslims by definition and action.  Muhammed (PBUH), Moses (PBUH), Abraham (PBUH) and Jacob (PBUH) were the first Muslims of their times, not the first Muslims ever to exist. 
The Qur'an does not specify this. It only says:
When he recovered his senses he said: “Glory be to Thee! to Thee I turn in repentance, and I am the first to believe.” (7:143).
Thats Moses. 

And I [Muhammad] am commanded to be the first of those who bow to Allah in Islam
Thats Muhammad.

Now I can understand how this explanation would work for Abraham and Jacob, but when Moses says, "I am the first to believe" and Muhammad says, "I am commanded to be the first of those who bow to Allah", That does not mean the first of their times, but instead the first ever. The Qur'an explicitly states Moses is the first to believe, and Muhammad was the first to bow down to Allah. Explain this contradiction. 

As you said this is a stretch. 

Allah does not forgive associating partners with him and this is called SHIRK. This is an unforgiveable sin because you would not be Muslim at this point as you don't believe in the 1 God. Any other sin, you are still Muslim, but a sinning Muslim. 

With the 4:153 verse, I don't get why Con left out a key part. Let me send the verse. 
Still We forgave them for that ˹after their repentance˺ and gave Moses compelling proof.
The people of Moses repented after associating others with God and God forgave them. 

God forgives anyone who sincerely repents, including the sin Shirk.
However God does not forgive shirk after anyone dies, but by his will he can forgive any other sin after a person dies. 

No contradiction here. 
So, does this mean that when you become a Muslim, some sins are ok with Allah? 


6:34- 
Indeed, messengers before you were rejected but patiently endured rejection and persecution until Our help came to them. And Allah’s promise ˹to help˺ is never broken. And you have already received some of the narratives of these messengers.

This verse is not talking about any books, it is Allah's promises. 
Does Allah's promise a degree though? Just like in the Bible, how God promised he would never flood the earth again, it stayed that way?
And if this is true, then does this mean that Allah doesn't keep his promises? In turn does this mean that Allah lies, and therefore sins? 

If We ever abrogate a verse or cause it to be forgotten, We replace it with a better or similar one. Do you not know that Allah is Most Capable of everything?- 2:106- What is 'WE' talking about? It is talking about Allah. Meaning, if Allah causes a verse to be abrogated or forgotten then He replaces it with a better one. It is Allah's will, not humans and it is the same as 16:101. 
That is my question exactly. What is we? Meaning all Muslims, or more than one God? 

Also, if Allah can replace the scripture, then does that mean that the original scripture is not in the Quran today? Does this also mean that Allahs writing could be wrong, or could be not perfect? Why would Allah need to replace a verse if it is forgotten. Can't he just restate it? Can't the great Allah create a perfect book first try? Why does it need to be changed? 

No contradiction here, more of a miracle. 
I will accept that answer.

Earthly wine is forbidden because it is an intoxicant. Muslims cannot drink it. Wine in heaven is 'pure' as stated in the verse meaning it won't harm you. It is one of the pleasures in heaven. 
Ok, a bit of a stretch, but the other verses do imply a holy tie to it.
Is this answer backed up by any other Qur'an verses, or just something you made up to make sense of it?

It is not even a debate, intoxicants are forbidden.
Then why do a lot of Muslims call drinking ok? 
I bet you will be surprised to find a lot of websites and online pages with Muslims saying that drinking is ok. 

I think I have done so. 
And with this, we continue the debate. 
Round 3
Pro
#5


If you go to the exact translation of this verse: Then We made the sperm-drop into a clinging clot, and We made the clot into a lump [of flesh]- 23:14
You will find this translation:
And certainly, did We create man from an extract of clay.
Yes you will. Let me give the Arabic and highlight the words of importance. 

وَلَقَدْ خَلَقْنَا ٱلْإِنسَـٰنَ مِن سُلَـٰلَةٍۢ مِّن طِينٍۢ

The term 'sulala' means extract or essence. There are many elements within the human body like nitrogen, oxygen etc, around 26 of these. The same elements that are found in the human body are also found in the soil. Remember the meaning of 'sulala'- extract. It isn't a contradiction to say that man was created from an extract of clay, it is true. The verses you brought up before were talking about Adam, this one is talking about the rest of man. The human body is also composed of water and the Quran backs this up as well. Soil and water mixed creates a sticky clay mixture, something which the Quran also mentions. 

I don't see a contradiction with this verse. 

It also says: 
Then We made the sperm-drop into a clinging clot, and We made the clot into a lump [of flesh], and We made [from] the lump, bones, and We covered the bones with flesh; then We developed him into another creation. So blessed is Allah, the best of creators.

When it says creators, is it implying more than one creator?
People create things on a day to day basis. However Allah affirms that He is the Best of Creators as he can create something from nothing, humans cannot do this. Quite simple

 Isn't giving someone an option between converting to their religion, and forcing them to convert forcing? 
It's either convert, or don't exist. It's not a decision to convert at that point. It is forcing people to convert. 
So, my question still stands. Is there or is there not compulsion in religion? 
No it is not. As stated, there are 3 options. Convert, pay the jizya or face the punishment. Two of those options do not speak about conversion full stop. One of the options is an option, not a forceful thing. There is no compulsion in religion. 

The Qur'an does not specify this. It only says:
When he recovered his senses he said: “Glory be to Thee! to Thee I turn in repentance, and I am the first to believe.” (7:143).
Thats Moses. 

And I [Muhammad] am commanded to be the first of those who bow to Allah in Islam
That's Muhammad.

Now I can understand how this explanation would work for Abraham and Jacob, but when Moses says, "I am the first to believe" and Muhammad says, "I am commanded to be the first of those who bow to Allah", That does not mean the first of their times, but instead the first ever. The Qur'an explicitly states Moses is the first to believe, and Muhammad was the first to bow down to Allah. Explain this contradiction. 
Muhammed (PBUH) and Moses were not born Muslim. 

Moses saw the miracle that Allah showed him and collapsed  and then accepted Islam. 
 I turn to You in repentance and I am the first of the believers.- 7:143
He never claimed that he was the first of the believers ever. If we look at the time of Moses, it was the Children of Israel. And they were not Muslim, therefore we know that it is talking about the time of his people. 

Let me break it down further. 

This phrase means first of the believers- 'awwala almumineena'

Lets go to 26:51- We really hope that our Lord will forgive our sins, as we are the first to believe.
The same phrase 'awwala almumineena' is used when they bowed down. 
They knew that Moses and Aaron were preaching the message of Islam and there were 2 Muslims in front of them. So why did they say the same phrase that Moses said? It means that they were the first of their people. Moses was the first of his people, and the people who bowed down after seeing the miracles were the first of the Children of Israel. Check the Tafsir. 

That means that the phrase 'awwala almumineena' does not mean the first ever. And of course as we know, Adam came before Moses and was a believer so using our common sense and rationality, we can deduce that Moses said he was the first believer ever. 

I will repeat it again, a Muslim means to submit your will to the creator. All the previous Prophets did it, so by using the definition, the answer is very clear. 

So, does this mean that when you become a Muslim, some sins are ok with Allah? 
It means there is such a thing as a sinning Muslim. No one is perfect by any means, sins are committed on a daily. As long as you keep on repenting and turning to Allah sincerely, He will forgive you. 

Does Allah's promise a degree though? Just like in the Bible, how God promised he would never flood the earth again, it stayed that way?
And if this is true, then does this mean that Allah doesn't keep his promises? In turn does this mean that Allah lies, and therefore sins? 
The Bible is irrelevant, we are talking about the Quran, we believe the Bible has been corrupted. Allah keeps his promises and no one can change these promises either. Within the Quran you can see that he promised to preserve the Quran. It has been preserved, not changing since it came down. But this is another topic, point is Allah keeps his promises. 

That is my question exactly. What is we? Meaning all Muslims, or more than one God? 
No, We is a royal title. For example, in the UK, the Queen says 'we are not amused'. Is she talking about others or her? 

We is also capitalized, showing that it isn't a group of people but one entity who is above the rest. In the Quran it also states 'He'. It does not mean that God is a man/male. It is a masculine word in the Arabic language, same way the French language has masculine and feminine words. 

Ok, a bit of a stretch, but the other verses do imply a holy tie to it.
Is this answer backed up by any other Qur'an verses, or just something you made up to make sense of it?
They ask you ˹O Prophet˺ about intoxicants and gambling. Say, “There is great evil in both, as well as some benefit for people—but the evil outweighs the benefit.”- 2:219

Smoking, drinking and anything else that intoxicates you is forbidden. 

Then why do a lot of Muslims call drinking ok? 
I bet you will be surprised to find a lot of websites and online pages with Muslims saying that drinking is ok. 
I don't know, ask them? This has nothing to do with what the Quran says, it is to do with what people think. And the Quran should be taken as an authority over peoples subjective opinions. And the vast vast vast majority of Muslims view drinking as a sin. 



I believe I have done a sufficient job at clearing up misconceptions.
Con
#6
Rebuttals:
The term 'sulala' means extract or essence. There are many elements within the human body like nitrogen, oxygen etc, around 26 of these. The same elements that are found in the human body are also found in the soil. Remember the meaning of 'sulala'- extract. It isn't a contradiction to say that man was created from an extract of clay, it is true. The verses you brought up before were talking about Adam, this one is talking about the rest of man. The human body is also composed of water and the Quran backs this up as well. Soil and water mixed creates a sticky clay mixture, something which the Quran also mentions. 

I don't see a contradiction with this verse. 
So, Adam is a different type of human compared to the rest of Man? Was Adam created differently?
We know in the Qur'an it states that Adam fell from the "heaven" because of sin. This mean that Allah created man to be with him in the heavens. 

But, since Adams mistake caused him to fall, this implies that the Qur'an is teaching:
One man's mistake = everybody's punishments. Can a man be punished for his father's sins? 

The Qur'an says otherwise:
And no bearer of burdens shall bear another’s burden”[Faatir 35:18]
 “We shall make a trial of you with evil and with good” [al-Anbiya’ 21:35]

So, since Adam fell from the heaven because of sin, why doesn't every other human exist in the heavens? They didn't sin. They are being punished from Adams sin against Allah. But the Qur'an also states that one cannot take the accountability of another's sin. So, which is it? 

As for the argument with the extract of clay, the Qur'an explicitly states:
"And certainly, did We create man from an extract of clay."

Can you find the explicit verse where the Qur'an states Adam was created inherently different from all men? Can you find the verse defending this defense of the Qur'an? Use the Qur'an to defend the contradiction, not your own thoughts.

People create things on a day to day basis. However Allah affirms that He is the Best of Creators as he can create something from nothing, humans cannot do this. Quite simple
"...then We developed the drop into a clinging clot ˹of blood˺, then developed the clot into a lump ˹of flesh˺, then developed the lump into bones, then clothed the bones with flesh, then We brought it into being as a new creation. 1 So Blessed is Allah, the Best of Creators." 23:14

Creators is capitalized for a reason. If the Qur'an was indeed talking about creators, as in human creators, why would he capitalize the word creators? Creators usually refers to someone who creates something. As far as I know according to the Qur'an, Allah is the only creator. If what you're saying is true, then that means that Allah is not the only creator. There are more creators than Allah, even if they are human. 

But Allah created everything there is, so whatever humans use to create what they want to create, is not a creation, it is using what Allah created to transform into other objects. It is like transforming ingredients into a cake. Allah created the ingredients, and the humans made the cake. They didn't create anything. 

So, what is it referring to when it says Creators?

No it is not. As stated, there are 3 options. Convert, pay the jizya or face the punishment. Two of those options do not speak about conversion full stop. One of the options is an option, not a forceful thing. There is no compulsion in religion.  
The punishment is death. I think a lot of people, including people on this forum would agree that if you are telling someone if they don't convert to your religion, or pay them off, then you will die, is a threat, and forcing someone into doing something.

Imaging a girl was being raped. The rapist tells the girl, either you let me have my way with you, or you will die. That is forcing. It is forcing you to go against what you want to do. 

Pro cannot protect this contradiction to the Qur'an. Pros only explanation for this vital piece of the Qur'an is that giving someone the option between conversion and death is not forcing. 

Muhammed (PBUH) and Moses were not born Muslim. 

Moses saw the miracle that Allah showed him and collapsed  and then accepted Islam. 
 I turn to You in repentance and I am the first of the believers.- 7:143
He never claimed that he was the first of the believers ever. If we look at the time of Moses, it was the Children of Israel. And they were not Muslim, therefore we know that it is talking about the time of his people. 

Let me break it down further. 

This phrase means first of the believers- 'awwala almumineena'

Lets go to 26:51- We really hope that our Lord will forgive our sins, as we are the first to believe.
The same phrase 'awwala almumineena' is used when they bowed down. 
They knew that Moses and Aaron were preaching the message of Islam and there were 2 Muslims in front of them. So why did they say the same phrase that Moses said? It means that they were the first of their people. Moses was the first of his people, and the people who bowed down after seeing the miracles were the first of the Children of Israel. Check the Tafsir. 

That means that the phrase 'awwala almumineena' does not mean the first ever. And of course as we know, Adam came before Moses and was a believer so using our common sense and rationality, we can deduce that Moses said he was the first believer ever. 

I will repeat it again, a Muslim means to submit your will to the creator. All the previous Prophets did it, so by using the definition, the answer is very clear. 
None of this defends the contradiction. It is you trying to explain how it isn't a contradiction using your own sense of reasoning and not the Qur'an itself. 

When someone says they are the first to do something, they don't have to say the first ever to get that point across. 
If I were to say Thomas Edison was the first to create the lightbulb, I don't need to say he was the first ever to get that point across. 
He was the first to create the lightbulb.

Your defense only has to do with exact definitions and doesn't help your case at all. 
Some parts of your defense of the Qur'an have to do with you going out of your way to make explanations that the Qur'an doesn't even state.
Then other parts have to do with you going into the tiny details of what the Qur'an says to prove your point. 

Which is it. Are we to take the Qur'an literally or are we to use our own logic to guess what might verses mean. 
If Allah is such a perfect God, then why is it that there is so much confusion in his words? I will get to that part of the argument later, but still. 

If we look at the time of Moses, it was the Children of Israel. And they were not Muslim, therefore we know that it is talking about the time of his people. 
So, there were no Muslims at the time of Moses at all? Somehow all of them just died off after Adam. 

So, does this mean that when you become a Muslim, some sins are ok with Allah? 
It means there is such a thing as a sinning Muslim. No one is perfect by any means, sins are committed on a daily. As long as you keep on repenting and turning to Allah sincerely, He will forgive you. 
This does not answer my question. Answer my question please.
It's yes or no. 

The Bible is irrelevant, we are talking about the Quran, we believe the Bible has been corrupted. Allah keeps his promises and no one can change these promises either. Within the Quran you can see that he promised to preserve the Quran. It has been preserved, not changing since it came down. But this is another topic, point is Allah keeps his promises. 
I am using the Bible as an example. You don't have to believe in the legitimacy of the stories and the words of the Bible, but I am using how the story portrayed itself as an example. 
You are saying that Allah keeps his promises, but literally in my last argument I proved he does not. There are promises he cannot keep or chooses not to keep. You are now in fact contradicting yourself. 

This is in fact not another topic. You stated that Allah changed the text in the Qur'an. Why? Thats my question. Why did Allah need to change the text in the Qur'an that he himself wrote? Why did he need to change his own word. 

No, We is a royal title. For example, in the UK, the Queen says 'we are not amused'. Is she talking about others or her? 
Herself. I understand this point. Also, you were the one who originally asked, what do I mean when I say we, so I don't completely understand what your point is.

Ok, a bit of a stretch, but the other verses do imply a holy tie to it.
Is this answer backed up by any other Qur'an verses, or just something you made up to make sense of it?
They ask you ˹O Prophet˺ about intoxicants and gambling. Say, “There is great evil in both, as well as some benefit for people—but the evil outweighs the benefit.”- 2:219

Smoking, drinking and anything else that intoxicates you is forbidden. 

Thats not the question.
I asked if the idea that some wine was holy and other wine was unholy is backed up by the Qur'an verses, or something you made up to make sense of it.

Also, you completely ignored these questions:
Also, if Allah can replace the scripture, then does that mean that the original scripture is not in the Quran today? Does this also mean that Allahs writing could be wrong, or could be not perfect? Why would Allah need to replace a verse if it is forgotten. Can't he just restate it? Can't the great Allah create a perfect book first try? Why does it need to be changed? 

Pro has not answered questions and contradicted themselves even more.

I think I have done more than enough to prove that the Qur'an contradicts itself. 
Round 4
Pro
#7
So, Adam is a different type of human compared to the rest of Man? Was Adam created differently?
Of course. Adam was 30 metres tall according to Islam. Adam was created directly by God directly from clay, mud and dirt. His offspring was not created by clay, mud and dirt like Adam, but from the sperm drop. 

But, since Adams mistake caused him to fall, this implies that the Qur'an is teaching:
One man's mistake = everybody's punishments. Can a man be punished for his father's sins? 
We don't have the same belief as Christianity. We do not believe in original sin. How can one mans actions equal everyone's punishment? I think you are getting the two religions confused. In Islam, babies are born with no sin attached, they are perfect beings. If they die as a baby they get heaven immediately. And I did not get the reference to where the Quran teaches, one man's mistake= everyone's punishment. So I perceive this as a lie. 

So, since Adam fell from the heaven because of sin, why doesn't every other human exist in the heavens? They didn't sin. They are being punished from Adams sin against Allah. But the Qur'an also states that one cannot take the accountability of another's sin. So, which is it? 
Right, I get what your point is but it is a weak point in proving that there are contradictions within the Quran. Adam was created from the earth's elements and God put him in heaven. He made a mistake with eating from the tree and God put him on earth. Now he is in heaven again. The rest of humans were not supposed to exist in heaven, the earth was made for mankind. Otherwise, what would be the point in heaven?  

Can you find the explicit verse where the Qur'an states Adam was created inherently different from all men? Can you find the verse defending this defence of the Qur'an? Use the Qur'an to defend the contradiction, not your own thoughts.
I got it wrong, holding my hands up now but correcting my mistake

I researched more into this verse: 

23:12- And certainly did We create man from an extract of clay.

It is talking about Adam. 

23:13- Then We placed him as a sperm-drop in a firm lodging.

It is talking about Adams offspring ie the rest of mankind

Go to Ibn Kathir commentary on this verse, it further backs this point up. 


So this is the verse, the creation of Adam was different to that of us.

So, what is it referring to when it says Creators?
The Arabic word used here is 'Al khaliqeen'
 
'Khaliq' can mean 2 things, the one who creates from nothing and the one who shapes things for example creating a phone or a computer is different to creating things like the universe. 

'khaliqeen' is the second option. 
However Allah used 'AL Khaliqeen' which can only be used by Him, as there is one creator which is reiterated throughout the Quran. 

No contradiction here, just have to understand the linguistics of the Arabic language. 

The punishment is death. I think a lot of people, including people on this forum would agree that if you are telling someone if they don't convert to your religion, or pay them off, then you will die, is a threat, and forcing someone into doing something.

Imaging a girl was being raped. The rapist tells the girl, either you let me have my way with you, or you will die. That is forcing. It is forcing you to go against what you want to do. 

Pro cannot protect this contradiction to the Qur'an. Pros only explanation for this vital piece of the Qur'an is that giving someone the option between conversion and death is not forcing. 

This is in reference to war. It is not a free situation, there are prisoners of war, which I am sure you know. Many non religious wars have taken place and there have been prisoners of war, this concept is not new. 

And how is a war started? Not by Muslim, but by the enemy. So the enemy fights you, you defend yourself. Then if you win the war, you take the prisoners of war. It is a basic concept. 

Punishment is death yes, but by entering the war and oppressing the Muslims first, isn't it inevitable? The rape comparison is disgusting, I am talking about war and you are talking about someone's free will. They are not the same. 

There is absolutely no contradiction regarding this. Another option is Jizya as I said. No forcing conversion allowed. 

None of this defends the contradiction. It is you trying to explain how it isn't a contradiction using your own sense of reasoning and not the Qur'an itself. 

As I said, check the tafsir

Some parts of your defence of the Qur'an have to do with you going out of your way to make explanations that the Qur'an doesn't even state.

Everything is within the Tafsir, not my explanations. 

Which is it. Are we to take the Qur'an literally or are we to use our own logic to guess what might verses mean. 
If Allah is such a perfect God, then why is it that there is so much confusion in his words? I will get to that part of the argument later, but still. 
There is no confusion at all. Maybe to you because you want to prove that there are contradictions it is confusing to you but to the rest of the 2 billion Muslims including Quranic scholars, these things are not an issue. 

I have answered this misconception already, I have given the phrase 'awwala almumineena' and both Moses said it as well as the Children of Israel. The Children of Israel said it in front of Moses, who was preaching Islam and they knew he was Muslim already. Where does it say they are the first of the believers ever? Especially when Moses was the first Muslim they encountered. How could the Children of Israel be the first Muslims ever when they heard the message of Islam from another Muslim? Your reasoning doesn't make sense and you have jumped too early. 

Let me repeat this again. The term Muslim means to 'submit'. Adam the first man did this therefore he was the first Muslim ever. The Quran does not even make this claim, but the definition of the word answered your misconception a long time ago. You're on thin ice buddy

So, there were no Muslims at the time of Moses at all? Somehow all of them just died off after Adam. 
No, Noah, Jesus, Lot, Job and all the other Prophets were Muslim. I am talking about how the 'Children of Israel' as I very clearly stated were not Muslim because they worshipped other than Allah. Moses reminded them of the straight path and they chose to listen. 

No contradiction here. 

This does not answer my question. Answer my question please.
It's yes or no. 
The sin itself is not okay with Allah. What is okay with Allah is when the Muslim who commits that sin turns to repentance sincerely. 

You are saying that Allah keeps his promises, but literally in my last argument I proved he does not
Which promise did he not keep? Don't refer to the Bible because we don't believe Allah authored the Bible. So I want to now which promise did Allah not keep?

There are promises he cannot keep or chooses not to keep.
Which are?
This is in fact not another topic. You stated that Allah changed the text in the Qur'an. Why? Thats my question. Why did Allah need to change the text in the Qur'an that he himself wrote? Why did he need to change his own word. 
I did not say Allah changed the text in the Quran, don't know where you got that from. Allah brought down the final testament (The Quran) because the Bible and Torah were corrupted by humans. 

I asked if the idea that some wine was holy and other wine was unholy is backed up by the Qur'an verses, or something you made up to make sense of it.
If it is referring to heaven, everything is holy, hence the word 'pure'. If it is referring to earthy desires for example 'intoxicants' they are not holy. The proof is within the pudding. Bring me two contradicting verses that state wine is holy and unholy talking about the same wine. 

Also, if Allah can replace the scripture, then does that mean that the original scripture is not in the Quran today?
The Quran is not the Injil nor the Tawrat. They are not the same. Therefore the original scripture is the Quran, it is 1/1. The Injil and Tawrat were scriptures given to Moses and Jesus for the people of that time. 

 Does this also mean that Allah's writing could be wrong, or could be not perfect?
No, Allah's writing is perfect and never wrong. The Bible that we have today is not Allah's writing therefore it is not perfect. 

Why would Allah need to replace a verse if it is forgotten.
These are unimportant questions that don't have anything to do with the topic, mainly red herrings. Allah can do what He pleases, if a verse is forgotten or lost throughout time, Allah can replace it. What is your problem with this?

Can't he just restate it?
Yes He can, if He pleases. 

Can't the great Allah create a perfect book first try?
He did. The Injil and the Tawrat were both perfect books corrupted by imperfect people. 

Why does it need to be changed? 
Because the Injil and Tawrat got corrupted therefore the message needs to be brought down to earth again. 




Some of these questions honestly, voters I am sure you can side with me that some of these questions were nothing to do with the topic and were essentially red herrings and strawman's. 

Con has not successfully given me a single contradiction, only assumes things which are not true. 

Vote Pro
Con
#8
Of course. Adam was 30 metres tall according to Islam. Adam was created directly by God directly from clay, mud and dirt. His offspring was not created by clay, mud and dirt like Adam, but from the sperm drop. 
Ok, so biology contradicts this, because if Adam had all of these defining characteristics, then his offspring would have had these characteristics as well. 
Again, the title says find a contradiction in the Qur'an, not where the contradiction has to come from I might add.

We don't have the same belief as Christianity. We do not believe in original sin. How can one mans actions equal everyone's punishment? I think you are getting the two religions confused. In Islam, babies are born with no sin attached, they are perfect beings. If they die as a baby they get heaven immediately. And I did not get the reference to where the Quran teaches, one man's mistake= everyone's punishment.
 I am not talking about original sin, I am talking about being born into a sinful world. 
If Adams (the original human) punishment was to be thrown from heaven and to live on earth, then why must we all be born on earth as well.
Allah created Adam in heaven right? Therefore this means that his intentions was for man to live in heaven. Why must we all live on earth? We didn't sin. 

We all suffer by being born into a sinful world, but it was Adam that caused us to be here in the first place, according to the Qur'an.
So why must one man's mistake = everyone's punishment? 

Right, I get what your point is but it is a weak point in proving that there are contradictions within the Quran. Adam was created from the earth's elements and God put him in heaven. He made a mistake with eating from the tree and God put him on earth. Now he is in heaven again. The rest of humans were not supposed to exist in heaven, the earth was made for mankind. Otherwise, what would be the point in heaven?  
Does Allah exist in heaven or did he create it? If Allah created heaven, where did he exist before?
If heaven is a place Allah created for humans, then why create earth? If Allah intended heaven to be for man, (creating Adam in heaven) then why did he create Earth? 
Also, another question, if Adam sinned in heaven, doesn't that make heaven not a perfect place? Sin existed in heaven for Adam to sin, therefore heaven is not perfect.

If earth was made for mankind, then why did God create Adam (a human) in heaven? 

I researched more into this verse: 

23:12- And certainly did We create man from an extract of clay.

It is talking about Adam. 

23:13- Then We placed him as a sperm-drop in a firm lodging.

It is talking about Adams offspring ie the rest of mankind

Go to Ibn Kathir commentary on this verse, it further backs this point up. 
You can say you researched it all day, but you have yet to show me an explicit verse, where 23:12 refers to Adam, and 23:13 refers to the rest of mankind? 
I mean they are literally a sentence a part, and they are referring to different things? 

23:12- And certainly did We create man from an extract of clay. 23:13- Then We placed him as a sperm-drop in a firm lodging.

That is how close they are. The verse 23:13 literally starts with the word Then.

If anything 23:12 should refer to mankind, and 23:12 should refer to Adam. 

23:13 is talking about "him"
23:12 is talking about "man"

How do you explain this, and prove you are right, through the Qur'an? 
Again, you have to use the Qur'an.

'Khaliq' can mean 2 things, the one who creates from nothing and the one who shapes things for example creating a phone or a computer is different to creating things like the universe. 

'khaliqeen' is the second option. 
However Allah used 'AL Khaliqeen' which can only be used by Him, as there is one creator which is reiterated throughout the Quran. 

No contradiction here, just have to understand the linguistics of the Arabic language. 
Al khaliq een translates to "the Best of Creators"

When I looked up the meaning of Khaliq, I got this definition multiple times:
Competent or Well disposed.

As for khaliqeen, I did some digging and found this link:
What is the meaning of ahsan-ul-khâliqîn, which appears in the Qur’ân al-karîm? If you consult a dictionary, it will define it as “the Best of creators,” which may lead to the wrong assumption that there are many creators. The translations of the Qur’ân on the market are not much different from this. Therefore, one cannot learn Islam from dictionaries or from translations of the Qur’ân. One must refer to authentic tafsîrs and religious books that deal with belief and practice."

If what this person says is true, than that means that one cannot learn Islam simply from the Qur'an, but has to revert to multiple books to learn Islam, and truly understand it.

If Allah created such a perfect book then why did other people have to create other books to explain the Qur'an. Again you are supposed to use the Qur'an to defend the Qur'an. Can't the Qur'an defend itself, or did people find contradictions, and write new books in order to fix them?
If the Qur'an is a perfect book, one shouldn't have to revert to other books to explain the Qur'an. 

This is in reference to war. It is not a free situation, there are prisoners of war, which I am sure you know. Many non religious wars have taken place and there have been prisoners of war, this concept is not new. 

And how is a war started? Not by Muslim, but by the enemy. So the enemy fights you, you defend yourself. Then if you win the war, you take the prisoners of war. It is a basic concept. 

Punishment is death yes, but by entering the war and oppressing the Muslims first, isn't it inevitable? The rape comparison is disgusting, I am talking about war and you are talking about someone's free will. They are not the same. 
Taking prisoners of war is not a free situation. 
But forcing them to convert or die, is.

Again, if these people simply just captured imprisoned, or killed them on the spot, this wouldn't be a problem, because they probably deserved it. 
But when you add in the option of conversion that is literally saying, if you don't convert you will die. 
That is forcing someone to convert. 
They wouldn't have converted unless someone threatened them with death.

I am not justifying what the enemy did.  But when you add in the option of converting, that is when the religion becomes forced. 

Everything is within the Tafsir, not my explanations. 
The Tafsir is not the Qur'an. You don't get to use others interpretations of the Qur'an to defend your position. You defend your position using the Qur'an. If the Qur'an doesn't contradict itself, then you should be able to explain why, not point to another person's explanation for it. 

You were the instigator. You wanted to debate. So debate. 

I have answered this misconception already, I have given the phrase 'awwala almumineena' and both Moses said it as well as the Children of Israel. The Children of Israel said it in front of Moses, who was preaching Islam and they knew he was Muslim already. Where does it say they are the first of the believers ever? Especially when Moses was the first Muslim they encountered. How could the Children of Israel be the first Muslims ever when they heard the message of Islam from another Muslim? Your reasoning doesn't make sense and you have jumped too early. 

Let me repeat this again. The term Muslim means to 'submit'. Adam the first man did this therefore he was the first Muslim ever. The Quran does not even make this claim, but the definition of the word answered your misconception a long time ago.
awwala almumineena:
Indeed, we aspire that our Lord will forgive us our sins because we were the first of the believers."

This does not mean the first of that time. It simply doesn't. You don't need the scripture to say the first believers ever, in order to mean the original believers. Again, you can think, that this is what the scripture meant, but that is not what the scripture said. The scripture said "the first of the believers".

No, Noah, Jesus, Lot, Job and all the other Prophets were Muslim. I am talking about how the 'Children of Israel' as I very clearly stated were not Muslim because they worshipped other than Allah. Moses reminded them of the straight path and they chose to listen. 

No contradiction here. 
Ok, then why did moses say he was the first? Again, you have to explain this contradiction. 

The sin itself is not okay with Allah. What is okay with Allah is when the Muslim who commits that sin turns to repentance sincerely. 
It's a yes or no question. Just answer the question. Yes or no.

I did not say Allah changed the text in the Quran, don't know where you got that from. Allah brought down the final testament (The Quran) because the Bible and Torah were corrupted by humans. 
It is literally stated in the Qur'an. 
If We ever abrogate a verse or cause it to be forgotten, We replace it with a better or similar one. Do you not know that Allah is Most Capable of everything?- 2:106

You yourself even stated it:
Meaning, if Allah causes a verse to be abrogated or forgotten then He replaces it with a better one. It is Allah's will, not humans and it is the same as 16:101.

Allah replaces scripture. That is what the Qur'an and you say. 

If it is referring to heaven, everything is holy, hence the word 'pure'. If it is referring to earthy desires for example 'intoxicants' they are not holy. The proof is within the pudding. Bring me two contradicting verses that state wine is holy and unholy talking about the same wine. 
You are again assuming scripture
The scripture does not say in any verse that there is a holy version of wine. The Qur'an only states that intoxicants are bad. It does not state whatsoever that there is any holy version of wine, only that their is wine in heaven. 

The Quran is not the Injil nor the Tawrat. They are not the same. Therefore the original scripture is the Quran, it is 1/1. The Injil and Tawrat were scriptures given to Moses and Jesus for the people of that time. 
So the Qur'an is not the original writings of Allah. Then why does Allah command Muslims to use the Qur'an to follow him. 

No, Allah's writing is perfect and never wrong. The Bible that we have today is not Allah's writing therefore it is not perfect. 
I am not talking about the Bible. The Qur'an states that Allah, can and has changed scripture. My question is why does Allah have the need to change his own perfect scripture?

He did. The Injil and the Tawrat were both perfect books corrupted by imperfect people. 
Why doesn't Allah just rewrite these books? Or are these books just contradicting to the Qur'an?
Why does Allah need to make new scripture. 
Round 5
Pro
#9
This is my last round, voters keep this in mind. 

Ok, so biology contradicts this, because if Adam had all of these defining characteristics, then his offspring would have had these characteristics as well. 
Again, the title says find a contradiction in the Qur'an, not where the contradiction has to come from I might add.
First of all, this isn't in the Quran that Adam was 30 metres tall. It is within the Hadith, what the Prophet said. 
And secondly, it is interpreted that he was 30 metres tall in Paradise where everyone will be the height of Adam, not when he got sent to earth. 

If Adams (the original human) punishment was to be thrown from heaven and to live on earth, then why must we all be born on earth as well.
Allah created Adam in heaven right? Therefore this means that his intentions was for man to live in heaven. Why must we all live on earth? We didn't sin. 

We all suffer by being born into a sinful world, but it was Adam that caused us to be here in the first place, according to the Qur'an.
So why must one man's mistake = everyone's punishment? 
This is the Biblical belief, not the Islamic. It was not a punishment for him to be thrown onto earth because he ate from the tree, you just assumed this is what the Quran says. It was actually the plan before Adam was created for humankind to dwell on earth. 

Allah actually forgives Adam before he gets sent to earth so again it reinforces the point that the earth was not a punishment, that is hellfire. 

And [mention, O Muḥammad], when your Lord said to the angels, "Indeed, I will make upon the earth a successive authority."- 2:30

So it was already going to happen, no matter what happened. 

Ibn Kathir commentary- On earth will be a dwelling place for you and an enjoyment for a time. So the earth is not a punishment like hellfire, but a dwelling place with enjoyment for a limited time. 

No contradiction here. 

Therefore this means that his intentions was for man to live in heaven. Why must we all live on earth? We didn't sin. 
Therefore, this claim is debunked. 

Does Allah exist in heaven or did he create it? 
No, Allah existed and then He created it. 

 If Allah created heaven, where did he exist before?
He existed, He doesn't have to exist somewhere. He is eternal, nothing before Him and nothing after Him. If something existed before Allah, we would have an illogical infinite regress upon us, meaning the present will not occur. 

If heaven is a place Allah created for humans, then why create earth?
Because earth is a place created for humans. 

If Allah intended heaven to be for man, (creating Adam in heaven) then why did he create Earth? 
Because man is the intended place for earth. 

 if Adam sinned in heaven, doesn't that make heaven not a perfect place? Sin existed in heaven for Adam to sin, therefore heaven is not perfect.

Adam did not sin. He was tempted by Satan and made a mistake. None of the Prophets sinned, they were all perfect. they made mistakes, but never willingly sinned. Therefore, and to back up the previous points, earth is not a punishment place because Adam never sinned. Therefore, heaven is perfect. 

If earth was made for mankind, then why did God create Adam (a human) in heaven? 
See Quran 2:30

I mean they are literally a sentence a part, and they are referring to different things? 
Yes 

23:12- And certainly did We create man from an extract of clay. 23:13- Then We placed him as a sperm-drop in a firm lodging.

That is how close they are. The verse 23:13 literally starts with the word Then.

If anything 23:12 should refer to mankind, and 23:12 should refer to Adam. 

23:13 is talking about "him"
23:12 is talking about "man"

How do you explain this, and prove you are right, through the Qur'an? 
Again, you have to use the Qur'an.
You do realise that Ibn Kathir is a tafsir for the Quran. And the tafsir is not another book, you realise that? It is an interpretation of the Quran by the highest scholars who had high knowledge of the Arabic language. You are assuming everything in English is the correct way the Quran is in, however the Quran was revealed in Arabic. If you are going to take every word in English of the Quran as it is, then that is illogical. The correct way is to look at the tafsirs or if you are fluent in Arabic, then you have a right to comment. 

Let me send the Tafsir

(Allah created Adam from a handful which He picked up from throughout the earth, so the sons of Adam came forth accordingly, red and white and black and in between, evil and good and in between.) Abu Dawud and At-Tirmidhi recorded something similar. At-Tirmidhi said, "It is Sahih Hasan. "

(Thereafter We made him a Nutfah.) Here the pronoun refers back to humankind, as in another Ayah:

(and He began the creation of man from clay. Then He made his offspring from semen of despised water.) 32:7,8 meaning, weak, as He says:

My opinion is the tafsir of the Quran, I know this is a debate but I obviously won't have all the knowledge in the world, so I will refer to the tafsir. 
Clearly says the pronoun refers back to humankind. This is not English, it is Arabic. A completely different language, much richer, different linguistics and special wording. If the tafsir contradicts then there is a problem, but it doesn't, so there isn't. 

No contradiction

If what this person says is true, than that means that one cannot learn Islam simply from the Qur'an, but has to revert to multiple books to learn Islam, and truly understand it.
It is funny that you give the website, take the first few lines and go with that. What else does the person say? 

Therefore, one cannot learn Islam from dictionaries or from translations of the Qur'an. One must refer to authentic tafsîrs and religious books that deal with belief and practice. 

Let me remind you again, the tafsir is not a religious book. It is an interpretation of the Quran from credible Arabic scholars. 

The same website states this: 

The word Khâliq has a couple of meanings. Al-Khâliq, one of the 99 Beautiful Names of Allah, means “the One who creates from nothing.” It also means “the One who gives shape.” In this respect, the word creator cannot be applied to humans. It is written in Shaikhzâda’s annotation to Tafsîr-i Baydâwî:

Ahsan-ul-khâliqîn means the Best of those who decree [who depict, who give shape, who put in order, who design] because the real, primary meaning of khalq is to create, to build, to make existent from nothing. The word khâliq in this verse has been used in the meaning of “the one who decrees.” As the word khalq cannot be thought of anyone else other than Allahu ta’âlâ in the sense of creating, it cannot be said “Allah is the Best of them [creators].” (vol. 4, 68)

All within the Tafsir. So the website has contradicted what you are saying, even though you gave it as a reference. 

While Allahu ta’âlâ declares that the only Creator is He, that there is no creator other than He, and that He has no partner, how can one say that there are many creators?

No contradiction. 

If Allah created such a perfect book then why did other people have to create other books to explain the Qur'an.
If everyone in the world spoke Arabic, there would not be an issue. However they don't, so to explain the Quran in English, you need the Tafsir, it is basic common sense. 

Again you are supposed to use the Qur'an to defend the Qur'an
And that is exactly what I have done. 

 Can't the Qur'an defend itself,
It can, if you spoke Arabic you wouldn't be questioning anything. 

If the Qur'an is a perfect book, one shouldn't have to revert to other books to explain the Qur'an. 
No one is doing that. 

Taking prisoners of war is not a free situation. 
But forcing them to convert or die, is.
I don't know why you think convert or die is the only options? I have said time and time again, that Jizya is an option. Jizya is paid for protection by the state, it is a tax for non Muslims. Muslims also have tax which is more per year called Zakat. It is perfectly justified and there is no compulsion in religion. 

The Tafsir is not the Qur'an. You don't get to use others interpretations of the Qur'an to defend your position. You defend your position using the Qur'an. If the Qur'an doesn't contradict itself, then you should be able to explain why, not point to another person's explanation for it. 
Tafsir clears it up. It is perfectly credible to use it to back up my points, I have not used the tafsir for my claims, description of my claims, and backing up the claim. It is only the latter. The Quran does not contradict itself in Arabic. In English, things have to be explained, and Tafsirs need to be referenced to. 

This does not mean the first of that time.
It does. Again, maybe in English it doesn't but that is a matter of translation. I have explained why the phrase used is the same used by Moses and Aaron and Muhammed (Peace be upon them all)

It's a yes or no question. Just answer the question. Yes or no.
Look at the first sentence, I have answered it. 
'The sin itself is not okay with Allah'

Allah replaces scripture. That is what the Qur'an and you say. 
'You stated that Allah changed the text in the Qur'an'

This is what you said to me. When did I say Allah changed the Quran?

The scripture does not say in any verse that there is a holy version of wine. 
Let me remind you of the verses. 

'with cups, pitchers, and a drink ˹of pure wine˺ from a flowing stream,' - 56:18
that will cause them neither headache nor intoxication.- 56:19

Firstly it says 'pure' wine. Wine on heaven is not referred to as pure. Secondly, look at that second verse, answer is there. 

So the Qur'an is not the original writings of Allah. Then why does Allah command Muslims to use the Qur'an to follow him. 
Because the Bible and Tawrat are corrupted, the Quran is the only one that isn't. 

 My question is why does Allah have the need to change his own perfect scripture?
The contents of the Injil and Tawrat were perfect, but humans aren't. Humans changed it with their own hands. 

Why doesn't Allah just rewrite these books?

Because the Injil and Tawrat were given for people of the time. The Quran is a message for the people of its time and the future, It is a book of guidance. 

Why does Allah need to make new scripture. 
Because the old one got corrupted. 


I think Con needs to learn some vital things about Islam, the Quran and Arabic. Round after round I keep answering the same questions, and new ones equally as confusing come up. There are also things that Con did not rebuttle to, I will let the voters read the debate. 

I am confident that I have done enough to win the debate. I have answered I think the same question for 5 rounds, Con still keeps repeating it. Con needs to learn Arabic first and then question the linguistics. 

Vote Pro. 




Con
#10
I feel as if I have successfully proven the Quran has contradiction, and Con has used other books besides the Qur'an to try and defend it. I do not feel the need to rebuttal his previous argument, given the fact that I have successfully proven there to be contradiction in the Qur'an. This is not an FF; this is just a short conclusion.

This was a fun debate, and I look forward to more like it in the future.

Vote Pro.