In the scriptures, Jesus Christ did not die for everyone.

To start with, we'll look at two scriptures.

The scriptures say the first shall be last , the last shall be first so I'll move in sort of a likewise spirit here starting first with the last book.

Starting with the last book , that is the book of Revelation, chapter 13 and to get to the point, verse 8.

"And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world."

Key things to take note of here are the following: "life", "slain from the foundation of the world".

We tie this language to another passage with similar language and context.

That is in the book of Ephesians , chapter 1, verse 4:

"According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love"

Both passages have to do with prior to the creation or just right at the start of it, a plan had already been established. An elect of some kind as the texts mention " chosen" and those not chosen to be "written in the book of life".

So now we've developed a "not all" understanding. 

Checkpoint list

1. "Not all"

Remember the key words "life", "slain", "foundation of the world".

We looked over the "foundation of the world" verbiage and see this mentioned in these two different passages of contexts.

The next keys we can look at in unison are "life" and "slain".

In Ephesians same chapter, verse 13:

"In whom ye also trusted, after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation"

Now the gospel of your salvation or the good news of you being saved, question is, what have you been saved with?

Reading further down starting with verse 19 and 20 for context :

"19 And what is the exceeding greatness of his power to us-ward who believe, according to the working of his mighty power,

20 Which he wrought in Christ, when he raised him from the dead, and set him at his own right hand in the heavenly places"

Here we see about the death of Christ all in the context of this chapter earlier on about a selection and reading on about what it means to be chosen in Christ.

So far we see "death" and being saved.

Go over to Ephesians the next chapter, starting at verse 5 - 7

"5 Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved;)

6 And hath raised us up together, and made us sit together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus:

7 That in the ages to come he might shew the exceeding riches of his grace in his kindness toward us through Christ Jesus."

The context continues about Christ, being raised and saved. 

Have the chosen in Christ been saved with the resurrection of Christ from death? Is he the one slain from the beginning that has those made alive with their names in the book of life mentioned in Revelation 13?

Checkpoint list

1."Not all"

2. The tie of Christ's death for those that have their names in the book of life.

I'll leave it there with those main two segments. That's pretty much the basis as to keep the capacity condensed and clear.

Although I do want to add these additional scriptures for further confirmation.

1 conrinthians 15 , pretty much the whole chapter.

Romans 8:33-34

33 Who will bring any charge(A) against those whom God has chosen? It is God who justifies. 34 Who then is the one who condemns?(B) No one. Christ Jesus who died(C)—more than that, who was raised to life(D)—is at the right hand of God(E) and is also interceding for us.(F)

Colossians 2:13-15

13 When you were dead in your sins(A) and in the uncircumcision of your flesh, God made you[a] alive(B) with Christ. He forgave us all our sins,(C) 14 having canceled the charge of our legal indebtedness,(D) which stood against us and condemned us; he has taken it away, nailing it to the cross.(E) 15 And having disarmed the powers and authorities,(F) he made a public spectacle of them, triumphing over them(G) by the cross.[b]

Again, all this just further backs up the main scriptures given.

Now before I end this round, please keep this in mind in that, whatever you say, it has to harmonize with Ephesians and Revelation.

Throwing scripture for scripture like blow for blow isn't the nature of this. 

You'll read in 2 Timothy 3 about all scripture being good for teaching, so we're not dropping one scripture, leaving out another so to counter with the next.

Everything is good to use so why leave one for another after another?

You harmonize things and to do so , you go by what it says in 1 conrinthians 2 on comparing spiritual things.

We make the comparison by finding the similarities hence getting the harmony.

You must present your case with bible, chapter and verse.

The title starts off with "In the scriptures....".

The basis should be from nowhere else unless it's because your case is not found in the scriptures.

From the description:

"Those that take the position that the topic statement is false must show from bible , chapter and verse only that that is the case."

So no question on the only source to use for this topic.

Side note : When I refer to scripture that doesn't directly relate to the title, there's no sense in trying to refute that. The focus is actually dealing with the scriptures I provided to demonstrate the topic.

Also you may refute my teaching but don't refute scripture. You have to harmonize scripture. 

The basis for this is down below. Again, nothing to refute as it is not a case built to support the topic statement but just a point made about a biblical standard of the correct manner in dealing with these texts.

"You harmonize things and to do so , you go by what it says in 1 conrinthians 2 on comparing spiritual things.

We make the comparison by finding the similarities hence getting the harmony."

"V.b.1.a I Corinthians 15: 22 [KJV] “For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.” [italics added for emphasis – denying the resolution.]"

You didn't harmonize this with Revelation 13.

You also didn't do this with John 5 :

"28 Marvel not at this: for the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice,

29 And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation."

Shouldn't be some but all resurrection to life here according to you.

Now to harmonize 1 conrinthians 15 with Ephesians 1, all are made alive that were chosen to be before the foundation of the world.Same thing with hebrews 2 , you have to understand this with the whole bible, not just in that isolated passage.

When I said throwing scripture for scripture , I meant giving scripture to try to say this is what the bible says and the other person just giving a verse they've come up with and saying this is what the bible says.

At the end of that, the problem is we have two different denominations and beliefs. We have to harmonize everything.

"VIII.a “John 1: 29 [ESV] “The next day, he[John the Baptist] saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, “Behold, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world.”"

Does this say Christ died for everyone of the world?

Revelations 13 and Ephesians 1 and 2 speak of the lamb being slain so that harmonizes with John 1. But those made alive through Christ as said in Ephesians, have life in the book of life. But there are those not in the book of life as said in Revelation 13. 

From Ephesians 1 to 2, those that were chosen to be made alive were by grace . So being chosen to it, through Christ death, all that were chosen we're made alive. If everyone was chosen, everyone's name would be in the book of life . In Revelation 13 , it mentions those who are not.

So many irrelevant scriptures mentioned with excessive extraneous lecture like information but I'll move passed that to get to your bible , chapter and verse against the topic statement.

"VIII.b John 2: 2 [ESV] “He [Jesus] is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.” [bold added for emphasis]"

Now how do we harmonize or understand this with Ephesians 1 to 2 and Revelation 13?

These are scriptures provided that you haven't addressed. You're throwing scriptures at me, throwing the ones I've given out.

You're attempting to throw scripture for scripture. But I won't do that. I won't come back with something else and drop what I had. I can add along the way but it will harmonize. In other words, I'm not placing and replacing, I build it up like using building blocks.

Many scripture provided from you did not say Christ died for everyone. Quite a bit about Christ and the death . The scriptures that say "die for all/the world" can't mean what many believe in and came up with a non-biblical doctrine for. The verses I mentioned appears to show a contradiction . Atheists seeing this debate will use this as a validation to discount the bible. 

When everything is harmonized, we won't have contradictions as it appears to be.

Something else to unite with Ephesians to support this teaching about "not all" I will add but this is nothing additional you have to deal with.

The epicenter or crux as it where are those two main passages provided. You have to resolve that before you get to anything else. That's door number one.

Matthew 22 and at verse 1

"1 And Jesus answered and spake unto them again by parables, and said,

2 The kingdom of heaven is like unto a certain king, which made a marriage for his son,

3 And sent forth his servants to call them that were bidden to the wedding: and they would not come."

You can continue to read to:

"14 For many are called, but few are chosen."

This is also ties back to Matthew 13.

The gathering up of those to come into the wedding/kingdom and gathering/collecting of wheat to go into the barn .

Resolution: “In the scriptures, Jesus Christ did not die for everyone.”
 
I Rebuttal: Pro “Everybody that bows down…”
I.a Pro advises that I read where the Holy Bible says as quoted above, forgetting that I have read the entire Bible several times, in four languages, and Pro has yet to read it entirely even once on any language. Sorry to say, in no verse of the Holy Bible does it say, “Every knee thatbows…” which implies that there are some knees that will not bow. Nope. There are multiple verses, OT and NT with a similar phrasing, but none limit by inference that some will not bow. We are looking specifically to what I quoted in my R3, I.b: Romans 14: 11. Rather, it states [KJV & ESV]  “For it is written, As I live, saith the Lord, every knee shall bowto me, and every tongue confessto God.”   Every knee, every tongue. All of them, everybody, just or unjust, shall ultimately confess to God. Pro seems to have a problem accepting what “all” and “everyone” really means.

I.b No, nothing here in just this verse, or even in its 14thchapter context, does it say that Jesus died for everyone. No, it doesn’t harmonize in that fashion, yet Pro continues to insist on his harmony. Tell me how one harmonizes when one has not yet met all the instruments and their players in the orchestra? Tough to harmonize when all one can play is a G major, only the one note, and only in the string section. Who knew that G, A, B, D, E, and F# is the G major chord. And that the strings, woodwinds, brass, and even some drums can play that chord together. But Pro cannot because he has not read the musical score, and cannot play all the instruments in the orchestra. Argue for you limitations; they’re yours.

I.b.1 Pro argued that II Timothy 3 teaches us that all scripture is good for doctrine. But pro then argues that all scripture is not good for doctrine if they cannot be harmonized. I trust Timothy knew what he was talking about. I also trust Pro is misguided by discounting some scripture when he has never read all of the Holy Bible, let alone other Holy writ I have acknowledged in my debate [and which, to date, Pro has not specifically discounted by any argument. If there is no harmony, according to Pro, there is no “good for doctrine” according to Pro. It’s a self-defeating argument in my book.

I.b.2 I will repeat an argument I offered in my R3, VI.b, which “Pro concludes that my analysis of Revelation 20: 4-5, 12 “disregards John 5,” but insists that II Timothy 3 says “all scripture is good for doctrine.” Mathematically, Pro says thus: IIT3 = J5 = R20 ∴  R20 ≠ J5. Is R20 also not equal to IIT3? No, it doesn’t make sense even when given in God’s native language.” Mathematics, that is.

I.c I also repeat argument from my R1, VII.a.1 and VII.b: “VII.a.1 I invite the comparison of Pro’s resolution, quoted above, and this verse from the N.T., [NIV] Hebrews 2: 9. In particular, compare the resolution to the last phrase, “…he [Jesus] might taste death for everyone.”  Sounds familiar? It should.” “VII.b Let’s look at this last, operative phrase in Greek [LXX]:  “… ὑπὲρ παντὸς γεύσηται θανάτου.”  [hyper pantos geusētai thanatou,  or, for everyonehe might taste death]  The operative word, everyone, translates to Greek as παντὸς [pantos],  which translates back to English as “everyone,” or “all,” or “anything.” So, what was the common language in Tarsus, where Paul [né Saul] was born? Greek, anyone?”

I.c.1 Pro made an attempt to rebut this passage in Hebrews 2, claiming it did not harmonize, that,   “…you have to understand this with the whole bible.”  A cheeky claim in Pro’s R4 when he later admitt3ed to having never read the “whole bible.”

I.c.2 Pro’s Resolution charges that,  “In the scriptures, Jesus Christ did not die for everyone.”  I challenge readers to apparently agree with Pro that Hebrews is not a book of scripture in the Holy Bible.  Therefore, Pro fails to meet his resolution.

II Rebuttal: “None of this says that Christ died for everyone.”
II.a Pro alleges: “Does the word "all" innately mean" all people"? Are you just adding the word "people" to the word "all"? You think questions aren't sound or whatever your opposition is but the whole debate is centered around a question. Do the scriptures teach that Christ died for everyone?”

II.a.1 Curious that Pro wants to harmonize all his scriptures, but does not understand the harmony of Christ dying for all because all will then resurrect, both the just and the unjust, some to life eternal, and some to condemnation. No scripture tells us that some will resurrect, and then die again by condemnation. They will not inherit life with God, but they still remain resurrected in life, but elsewhere, separated from God. We live right now outside of God’s presence. What’s the difference if we live in mortality, or in immortality, but that some with live with God, because of their faith and works in this mortal life, and some will not live in God’s presence because they sinned and refused to repent. Therefore, since all will resurrect, all were benefitted by Christ dying for them all.

II.b Pro is correct, as for the one verse 22 of I Cor. 15, about which Pro argues. But, contrary to Pro’s allegation, we have not been all over I Cor. We have been all over verse 22, and pro’s R5 quoted 23, but that is not all, either. Have I not previously said that a single verse lifted from its context does not tell all? Therefore, I will waste rebuttal space of my own words to quote 26 verses of the chapter of Paul’s I Corinthians 15, verses to give us context. They refute all of Pro’s arguments that Christ did not die for everyone.
 
1 Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;
2 By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.
3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;
4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:
5 And that he was seen of Cephus, then of the twelve:
6 After that, he was seen of above five hundred brethren at once; of whom the greater part remain unto this present, but some are fallen asleep.
7 After that, he was seen of James; then of all the apostles.
8 And last of all he was seen of me also, as of one born out of due time.
9 For I am the least of the apostles, that am not meet to be called an apostle, because I persecuted the church of God.
10 But by the grace of God I am what I am: and his grace which was bestowed upon me was not in vain; but I laboured more abundantly than they all: yet not I, but the grace of God which was with me.
11 Therefore whether it were I or they, so we preach, and so ye believed.
12 Now if Christ be preached that he rose from the dead, how say some among you that there is no resurrection of the dead?
13 But if there be no resurrection of the dead, then is Christ not risen:
14 And if Christ be not risen, then is our preaching vain, and your faith is also vain.
15 Yea, and we are found false witnesses of God; because we have testified of God that he raised up Christ: whom he raised not up, if so be that the dead rise not.
16 For if the dead rise not, then is not Christ raised:
17 And if Christ be not raised, your faith is vain; ye are yet in your sins.
18 Then they also which are fallen asleep in Christ are perished.
19 If in this life only we have hope in Christ, we are of all men most miserable.
20 But now is Christ risen from the dead, and become the firstfruits of them that slept.
21 For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead.
22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.
23 But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ’s at his coming.
24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.
25 For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.
26 The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death.
 
II.b.1 Therefore, Christ did die for everyone, contrary to Pro’s Resolution, and Pro’s BoP fails.

III Rebuttal: “We could say its saying…” and further grammatical quibble
III.a Pro then argues,  “It just says the word "all". We could say it's saying all that are saved, all that are chosen, all that are born again, but just leave it as simply how it is written. When you go too far with the audacity requiring it to say everybody, the other books will make a fool out of you.” Can readers follow this alleged logic? All is not everyone? We’ve been here before. 

III.a.1 Pro’s first quote of his R12 argument:  "And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world."  [Revelation 13: 8] Seems all means everyone, “all who dwell upon the earth,”  yet Pro later denies it.  Pro argues against himself, a turn of logic. Pro’s BoP fails. 

III.b Pro then argues, “Everything you said from the last quote of yours I put is simply futile. It's circular and you're running from the scriptures I've offered understandably so as they go against your position.”  

III.b.1 Do they? Like the quote above from Revelation 14; Pro’s own citation goes against my position? Pro’s BoP fails.

III.c Pro then argues, “1 Corinthians 15 says all will be made alive. The question is , all what? You're adding the word "people". It doesn't say all people so don't run with this assumption of all people. Let's say your right in thinking it is all people. You would be right until you look at Revelation, not to mention other books.”

III.c.1 But we have just looked in Revelation 14, above in my arg. III.b, III.b.1. Am I still right, after all? Then Pro’s BoP fails.

III.d Pro then argues,  “It has to be one or the other. Christ can't die for all people and not for all of them at the same time. One negates the other making a statement recanting it after it was said.”

III.d.1 Shall we re-visit, once again, my argument that there are contradictions in the Holy Bible; may argument in my R1, II.d.2, II.d.2.A: “I consider the Holy Bible to be the Word of God, however, I accept it only as such, not because it is infallible, for the contradictions in it are many, and not because seven centuries of argument over this and that “chapter and verse” to which Pro refers the thrust of my BoP should be considered as literal and unchangeable from the original texts from which, over centuries, we have the alleged infallible work of fallible men, including, by the way, the original authors, but because we can, today, still read, interpret, and then ask God if we have understood correctly.  I will challenge the reader to read James 1: 2-5 and conclude anything different than what I’ve just written: that we can ask God for wisdom. James uses that very word. So, go do it, every one of you.

III.d.2 I will advise readers to refer to my argument in R2, I.c regarding the definition of “bible.” 

III.d.3 Pro, himself, acknowledge biblical contradictions, so he cannot now say “It’s one or the other,” to wit, from his R2:  “The verses I mentioned appears to show a contradiction. Atheists seeing this debate will use this as a validation to discount the bible.”   I take Pro at his own words that the scriptures appear to contradict themselves, therefore, what harmony? And if those specific scriptures, the Holy Bible, are infallible, how, then do we interpret harmony? I hereby rebut Pro’s late R2 confusion, extending to R5, as being contradiction to his own declared debate purpose and protocol. Therefore, Pro’s BoP fails.

III.e Pro goers on to make other arguments, repeating arguments from previous rounds, all which exhibit the same results of the examples I demonstrated above. “Yes, we could say it’s saying…” but, since there are contradictions in the Holy Bible, because although the word of God, it was never written by God, but by fallible men, transliterated and translated by fallible men, and Pro acknowledges there are contradictions, and expresses a doleful wish that there were no contradictions: “When everything is harmonized, we won't have contradictions as it appears to be,”  [Pro’s R2], but wants everything harmonized right now.

III.e.1 Regardless, Pro did not qualify his Resolution: “In the scriptures, Jesus Christ did not die for everyone” with any mention of harmonizing. Nor was it required in his Description. I have cited from scripture, as requested, to prove my BoP that Christ died for everyone. Pro disagrees, but, in the process, he has argued that “all” does not mean “everyone” [absurd], offered contradictions [there are], reversed his arguments [he did, even on the matter of contradictions], and has offered gibberish logic [“we could say it’s saying…”]. Pro’s BoP fails.

III.e.2 Perhaps Pro would have been better off adding definition for some of these words, but he chose to never mention that term until his 5thround. No wonder we quibble over “all” and “everyone,” but if anyone else is confused on the matter and you agree with Pro, so be it.
 
Jesus Christ died and lives for all who have lived on earth, as all who have lived on earth will die and live again; the just and even the unjust. I so testify by scripture and by my own personal witness that this is true.
 
Thank pro for the debate, thank you readers for your indulgence; please vote for Con.