This is your definition.Such definition is inappropriate, because it fails to take into account consent based on limited knowledge.It also fails to determine who decides what amount of knowledge is enough for consent.For example, child knows that certain sexual activities bring pleasure. Child consents to them because child wants pleasure. What more knowledge does child need?The fact that you try to equalize "childs consent based on childs current knowledge" to "no consent" so that you could violate childs consent and make decisions about childs own body, and then accuse others of doing what you do, is nonsense.Childs will is consisted of childs goals. Only knowledge relevant to these goals is relevant for consent.
I will stick with my original premise, children are easily
manipulated and if they are subject to coercive manipulation by an adult, for
that adult’s own ends, then that child is not consenting.