For clarity, here is the question from post 453 : “How does what you said about disbelief and one's private gnosis apply ?”
For
clarity, here is what the question is about ('what you said'), from
post 440 : “I create distinctions between "believe in" and "argue for."
That is, the disbelief in God or gods as an expression of value needs
not be "rationally defensible" because it's a declaration of one's
private gnosis.”
First, you are missing the point, for the issue is not whether you addressed the question, but whether you answered it. You haven't.
Second, I cannot find where in post 440 you addressed the question. Please show where you have done so.
For clarity, this is what you stated:
You say that with that disagreement you
merely shared your internal gnosis
And then I responded:
1. No, I didn't.
You then asked:
How does what you said about disbelief and one's private gnosis apply ?
And then I responded:
I never stated that my disagreement with your claim was an expression of
private gnosis. I stated that private gnosis on its own needs not be
rationally defensible.
You state I haven't answered your questions, but I've responded to your questions in this very long time that we've had this exchange. Perhaps if you ceased quoting me out of sequence, you would've been able to find them easier. But here's what I said in context of its application (here's the part that you left out):
I create distinctions between "believe in" and "argue for." That is, the
disbelief in God or gods as an expression of value needs not be
"rationally defensible" because it's a declaration of one's private
gnosis. As an argument, however, the proposition of a claim needs to be
rationally defensible because argumentation is intended to resolve
disputes between conflicting private gnoses using a consistent (not
objective) standard as its measure. So, "I don't believe in God" needs
not be rationally defensible; however, "God does not exist"--an
argument--needs to be.
This creates a distinction between "belief" and "argument." That is the application.
[2.] Please demonstrate that your disagreement with the claim “In the
mean time everyone agrees, either tacitly or explicitely, that the
position that atheism is irrational is not a rationally defensible one.”
is rationally defensible.
I don't have to demonstrate that my disagreement expresses anything other than a contradiction to your claim, "everyone agrees..." I have no intention of contradicting or undermining atheism in the context of "belief." As an "argument" however, well... WHAT HAVE WE BEEN DOING THESE LAST COUPLE OF MONTHS? If you don't know at the very least my argument against the rationality of the argument "God does not exist," then WE HAVE WASTED OUR TIME.
[3.] You are being evasive. How does the meaning of value explain why stating that a belief is based on value is redundant.
Because the two are virtually synonymous.
Definitions weren't discussed in this subdiscussion.
No idea what you're talking about, here.
That did not stop you from using the former as an excuse to abstain from doing that latter.
Excuses? I'm not the self-admitted "sloth," here. I establish definitions; I establish arguments; your preference as to the sequence of these submissions are inconsequential.
I did so on your request.
Made no such request. I had asked you if you had objections, and to substantiate them in the event that you did.
[100] If I have inappropriately failed to provide substantion to my
questions about your definitions, please point out the pertinent cases.
Your incapacity to substantiate an unnecessary element in the definition I provided for the term exist.
101] Typically confusing or deceptive definitions. For example, calling your dog God and then claiming that God exists.
That is neither deceptive nor confusing; stringent definitions make for better arguments, but here I am just making "excuses."
[4.''] You forgot the magic word.
Forget it.
[78] Right. Let's jump passed the confusion you mangaged to sow.
Yes, I'm the one sowing confusion.
Apparently I read you wrong. You again successfully confused me.
In
post 445 you said : “In order to aquire and maintain knowledge, one
needs information. One can either conceive information or receive
information, which ultimately is still conceived (i.e. information
sustained by one's mind is irrevocably subjected to the bias of one's
mind and subsequent conceptual attachments.) Your defining
Spino--conceiving or "receiving" information notwithstanding--informs
its existence.”
Please demonstrate the last claim.
My demonstration is no longer of any consequence at this point.
[a] So, defining Spino implies conceiving Spino and conceiving Spino
provides information about Spino. Yet you claimed that the nonexistent
provides no information. Please demonstrate that.
Same as directly above.
[b] It would seem then that I can make you commit a red herring fallacy on demand.
Whatever.
[*] Is that a fact or just your personal opinion ?
It's of no consequence.
[**] Providing information to this argument ≠ honouring your burden of proof.
Most people are lazy. Few people are honest enough to admit it.
Inconsequential.
[a] You missed the point. Adress a question ≠ answer a question
Yes, yes, we already know that my responses do not personally satisfy you.
[b] The claim I have asked you to prove is that everything that is
perceptible exists. (I am assuming that Everything = everything.) Since
then we have a definition for everything, namely all things that exist.
That makes the claim elementary. However, you also claimed that God is
perceptible and that the nonexistent cannot be perceived. Please
demonstrate those claims.
No longer matters.
[c] Your impoliteness is not contested.
Noted.
[f] I thought you had not answered the question and strictly speaking, I
was correct. Then, in post 465, I noticed that an answer could be
derived fom it, which I provided in post 465. Now you refuse to
acknowledge that that candidate answer is indeed according to you the
answer to my question. You refuse to provide clarity.
More characterizations, no substantiation.
[g] I don't state I measure “impossibility” and I don't know what applying abstracts means.
I'm sure you don't.
As this is not going anywhere, I would assume the answer is 'no'
for logical impossibility and 'it depends' for physical impossibility.
However, since making assumptions about what you believe or stand by
tends to be counteproductive, I won't.
[81] You claim that
it is false that it is impossible to imagine something that does not
exist prior. Therefore it is possible to imagine something that does not
exist prior or it is neither possible nor impossible to imagine
something that does not exist prior.
Thus we have :
P1. It is impossible to imagine something that does not exist. (from post 454)
P2. Imagining something that does not yet exist does not always cause it to exist.
P3. It is possible or (not possible and not impossible) to imagine something that does not exist prior.
P3 implies (using P2) that it is possible or (possible nor impossible) to imagine something that does not exist.
That appears to contradict P1. How do you reconcile these premises ?
We agree. And since it's not going anywhere (the basis of my stating, "my demonstration is no longer of any consequence at this point") you can have yourself a nice day, sir. I will indulge your vacuous responses no further.