If you refuse to cite your claims, then you retract the point and concede the argument.
I've done neither. I do not concede the argument, much less retract my point.
That helps in the sense that I can now understand your grammatically incorrect sentence. This is what you originally wrote: "A conception no less, which by your description is malleable contingent on our "colloquial" understanding". It needs a comma between malleable and contingent, or else 'malleable contingent' becomes, functionally, a noun (which renders it void of sense).
It isn't grammatically incorrect. Your misinterpretation does not substantiate error on the part of any one else but yours. The adjectival/adverbial application of the term, "contingent," does not require a comma. In order to identify the term's adjectival/adverbial or nominal application, one simply needs to look at the other terms surrounding it. If the term, "contingent," was preceded by an article (e.g. "a, an, the, etc.") a relative pronoun (e.g. "who, whose, which, that, etc.") or the possessive case of a proper/common noun (e.g. "name's, person's, corporation's, etc.) then your contention about the term functionally serving its nominal application would be valid. However, since it is preceded by an adjective, not to mention followed by a preposition, it is clearly serving its adjectival/adverbial application. In this context, "contingent" is modifying the term, "malleable."
Please do go on. Continue to pass your confusion as "rules of grammar" as if your opponent were categorically unfamiliar with the aforementioned. Furthermore, if you require a source, then feel free to confirm at your own leisure.
All of the variables required for "classroom discipline" (e.g. work ethic, punctuality, persistence etc.) are not bundled into the term 'intelligence'.
You're arbitrarily selecting factors you believe are included in "classroom discipline" (i.e. "work ethic, punctuality, persistence, etc.)
Thus, the distinction is naturally assumed.
Another assumption based on your impressions. That is inconsequential.
Conscious recognition isn't a prerequisite for allegations of attempting to escape.
I'm not aware of the point this statement serves, but once again, not trying to escape consciously recognized or not.
I will continue to push for your sources.
And you'll receive my refusal in perpetuity.
It is absolutely necessary to use data, the scientific method and qualitative analysis of sources.
No it is not. Sources can be helpful to illustrate and communicate particular conclusions with the use of empirical data. They are not absolutely necessary. An argument either reflects a truth or a falsehood (and in many cases, the premises and conclusions can be inconsistent without either being necessarily true or false.) Either way, confirming the veracity of my statement is up to you. Do so at your own leisure.
If you refuse, then one of these things is true: (1) your claims are not backed by any source, or (2) you are too lazy to source your claims.
False dichotomy.
In either case, you are at fault, and in every instance you fault here, you concede the point.
Not a single part of that statement can be substantiated.
The capacity for everyone to check your previous posts is important. It allows inconsistencies, gish gallops, red herrings etc. to be weeded out by an attentive audience. This is often the function of a moderator in a debate.
Of course, under the presumption that posts prima facie consist of inconsistencies, gish gallops, red herrings, etc. A presumption, by the way, you have not substantiated. And this is the "forum," not the DEBATE section. This discussion we're having will go on virtually un-moderated.
It also allows for objectivity.
First, objectivity is irrational; Second, regardless of the source you cite, it will be biased.
seeing that we can refer to something everyone is privy to. Hence, "everyone" is very relevant and certainly not irrelevant.
I'm not having this dialogue with everyone. I'm having this dialogue with you. Everyone is free to look on; everyone is free to participate. Thus far, no one has done either. So who is this "everyone"?
My comments on race-related topics are all backed and informed by scientific research, not the other way around. Arguments made independent of such rigour are your uncited blurts.
Many perspectives, even conflicting ones, are backed by "scientific research." So what? Scientific research cannot be a placeholder for an actual argument.
My apologies for misconstruing your position, but this position is actually worse than what I thought you argued, and hence I thought you weren't arguing it.
To say that intelligence "cannot be quantified", which implies into the future indefinitely, is pure arrogance and astronomically unlikely.
Another assumption based on an impression.
even in the near future, as science begins to 'find the genes' for various human traits, you will be proven wrong
But I haven't been "proven wrong"--not even by your alleged "Millennium Eye."
the intelligence-generating genes are found.
Have they been found? No? This postulate is of no consequence.
The whole scientific world disagrees with you. Psychometrics, including I.Q, are valid.
The amount of "agreement" my argument receives from the "whole scientific world" is irrelevant; furthermore, I.Q. does not and will never be able to quantify intelligence because intelligence is not quantifiable.
You purported yourself to be an authority on the topic, and thus you claimed you didn't need to cite sources to back your claims. That is a unique variation on an appeal to authority, but one nonetheless.
I did not "purport" myself to be an authority on the topic. Here, let's review:
MgtowDemon:
You've, for some reason, left out the entirety of the study I provided which provided to prove my point. I'm going to copy-paste it so you have another chance to respond to it:
No, I disregarded it. But after perusing the study, I've come to the conclusion that you haven't read the entirety of your study, much less pay attention to the language used.
MgtowDemon:
Firstly, why did you disregard it? You haven't at all explained why. You simply ignored it and moved onto other parts of the post. You're only addressing it now because I am holding you accountable.
Athias:
Because I've read extensively on the I.Q. born from a fervor in my youth. Furthermore, your data does not rebut, refute, contradict, or even "counterargue" that "Black is not a race." Hence, I disregarded it.
Where did I appeal to my own authority? If I had tried to qualify the veracity of an argument by using my particular knowledge or experience as evidence, then that would be an appeal to authority. You asked me for the reason I chose not to read your source initially, and I responded by stating that I've read extensively on the I.Q. Where's the qualification? Where's the argument being qualified?
Before you allege that someone has imputed a fallacy, it may perhaps be prudent to know that which constitutes said fallacy.
Incorrect. "Black" can be a race, if given sufficiently low K in population divisions.
And an apple can be orange if sufficient conditions are met. This statement is inconsequential.
What I attempted to convey to you is that skin colour alone doesn't determine race all that well. It's fine for Europeans and Africans. It's not fine for Africans and Australian Aboriginals.
So "Black" is not a race.
This is precisely how we determine race (assuming the person hasn't migrated there recently. e.g. a Swedish person living in Turkey for a week).
Where in your source is your description of race reflected and explicitly stated?
Appropriate is substantiated in that, for example, lumping all Japanese, Chinese, Malaysians, Koreans etc. into Asian, isn't as accurate as dividing them further. Of course, there is infinite regression until the individual has his/her group, but the same logic applies to colours, and we take no issue calling things red, orange, yellow etc. (i.e. what is considered to be appropriate).
Argumentum ad antiquitatem. The trends and traditions one indulges (i.e. parsing colors) does not provide substantiation to "appropriate."
I must be typing to Stevie Wonder.
I'm neither the instrumentalist nor the musician he is.
African Americans frequently refer to themselves at 'black'.
Which "African-Americans"?
I have heard other Africans make identical references.
So?
On the contrary, I have never heard Australian Aboriginals refer to themselves as black (they do say 'black fella', though, black fella =/= black).
So your ecological inference is based on anecdotal evidence?
You provided a direct quote from a source without giving credit to the author.
Therefore, you plagiarised.
We're not writing research papers. We're having a discussion. Had you read your own source, you would've noticed where it was from, rather than accuse me of "plagiarizing" it from a source, which, by the way, you failed to identify correctly. Furthermore, if I had intended to "plagiarize," then quoting the content would've been unnecessary. I would've simply passed it off as my own unaltered. Just wipe the egg off your face and move on.
The study demonstrates that genetic divisions fits ancestral geographic locations extremely well, virtually at a 1-to-1 ratio when sufficient genetic markers are used (160+). If you disagree, you haven't read the study properly (but at least you're reading it).
Irrelevant. I'm not challenging the "fit" of genetic clusters as it concerns ancestral geographic locations.
Populations of humans geographically separated who also interbred, and hence are physically and genetically distinguishable.
Where in your source is your description of race reflected and explicitly stated?
Clearly, for people to become admixed, there needs to have been race-mixing.
You're presuming that the reference to "populations" is a reference to "race." Another assumption based on your impressions.
Nobody knows, including you.
I do know. I know intelligence is abstract. And that intelligence is informed by definition only.
Nope. You simply failed to derive meaning from it.
Clearly, because there's no meaning to derive from it.
Lol racial I.Q. is an average, not a calculation of the individual's I.Qs. You don't seriously think I'm arguing that all African Americans have an I.Q of 85?
And what does taking the "average I.Q." and juxtaposing them among your so-called "races" intend to indicate?