I don't know why it would be more or less difficult to understand than any other ancient culture, and it would depend on who's trying to understand it, what exectly they're trying to understand about it, and in what context. If you'd like to be more specific, I can make a better answer. Is it required that anyone who reads the bible have some qualification in ancient Hebrew language and history?
No. There's no such requirement. And I didn't imply that ancient Israelite culture is more or less difficult than any other ancient culture. I think it's often understood that understanding ancient civilization's culture requires a lot of research. Do you think you can read Sumerian texts and understand them without research?
No. Why is this important?
It depends. It actually might not be important at all if I've misunderstood you all this time. My thought was that you have come to the conclusion that the Bible promotes (or condones) slavery....without question or need for further inquiry/study/research.
I have no idea. I just know that's what it says. If I had to make a guess, it's because their medical knowledge was so far behind what we know today that
they thought a death on day three might not be directly tied to the injuries related to their beating. Why do atheists have to explain why it does?
Did you know that they had rules prohibiting using instruments that could cause serious damage? That they had judges that would examine the victim to see if there was a blunt to the head (which was also forbidden)? That the author is speaking with the assumption that there's no visible sign of a beating? Think of a modern legal system trying to determine if the death of an individual was accidental or was murdered.
If you don't have any idea, how can you make any definite claims?
And on a side note, if the ancients were just half as stupid as you seem to think, I don't think we'd be here today. Or is it just the Israelites that were so ignorant?
I'm not sure what you're arguing here. It seems a little like you're saying "because the time frame isn't exact, the master is being treated unfairly"? THat can't be right. Can you clarify why this paragraph is here?
You're correct in saying "that can't be right". I'm not implying anyone is being untreated fair here at all. It would be unfair if there really was a time limit. Like the 7 year rule where if someone is not caught within 7 years, they go free. That's a precise time frame to the very last second before midnite of the 7th year. So if the ancient Israelites were given 1 or 2 days as an official time frame for innocence, I think you can see the problem. It's like someone saying to a criminal they can go free if they avoid arrest 7 or 8 years. Which is it?
The one or two days was not official. It was a general time frame to protect the master from being sentenced to death if the slave died from some other cause. If there were no visible means to identify the victim's death as being from a beating, then a general time frame, resolved by the decision of a judge was placed.
So is this to say that you ARE an expert on ancient hebrew history and language and therefore your assertion that all the rules in the bible about slave purchases, treatment, terms of service, etc., is thereby correct? Those rules are there, aren't they? I'll ask you a version of a question I had in probably a different thread. Which one of the below is NOT in the bible?
A: Slaves, obey your earthly masters with respect and fear, and with sincerity of heart, just as you would obey Christ.
B: Thou shalt not own another human being as property.
C: You shall not wear cloth of wool and linen mixed together.
D: However, you may purchase male and female slaves from among the nations around you
No, I'm not an expert. I'm one who is continually learning.
Like Ethan indicated earlier, I think in this thread, these discussions are a treadmill. The treadmill effect that I see is one where an area of biblical slavery is addressed to (we'll just say for sake of time) an atheist, who then just goes down the ladder addressing other areas without resolving what their thoughts are on the area(s) already addressed.
You stated earlier (correct me if I'm wrong) that some parts of the bible condemn slavery whereas others promote it. This is a no-no with high profile atheists who make public their claims. They're in a position that requires they not give in as much as you did. They're under scrutiny to where they can't get away with that as easily. The whole ball of wax has to be evil, or their argument doesn't work. As I stated many times, today there are a number of acceptable avenues where humans are owned. I brought this up with the atheist I was referring to, and mentioned the military. He got offended and stated that the military is voluntary. He also cut me off as I think he worried about me bringing up the draft.
So that being said, where do you stand on biblical slavery as a whole? Are you okay with voluntary servitude as practiced amongst the Israelites? Or is that part of the whole evil package of a whip wielding religion?