Yes it does.
Objective = unbiased
Subjective = biased and the most fundamental bias of all is sample-bias.
Substantiate this claim.
No.
They are intrinsically linked, not necessarily "the same thing".
I'm pointing out that your desire is prerequisite to your method.
Your method means nothing and can never happen without your prerequisite desire.
Your desire is biased, shaped by your personal feelings and whims.
This bias contaminates your method.
Desire is like the battery of a robot.
Without desire (a battery) then the robot (your method) is dead (moot).
Explain.
WTF.
NOUMENON = THE UNKNOWN
Somewhat, not exactly. Noumenon is independent from ontological subjectivity, not necessarily isolated from it. It is possible to represent an object in Noumenon, for example, objectively as a matter of coincidence. Of course, in order for us to gauge this accuracy we'd of course have to isolate it, but since we're discussing Noumenon, this coincidental representation is ontologically objective. This obviously is epistemologically insignificant.
Do you know everything?
I don't need to know everything; I need to know only the scope of everything.
I'm going to guess not.
That's biased.
Are you kidding me?
The only way to avoid the "subject's perspective" is for you to not be a subject with a perspective.
Who said anything about "avoiding"? Embrace it; incorporate it. To be ontologically subjective is not synonymous with to be inaccurate or epistemologically subjective.
The only way for you to not have a "subject's perspective" would be for you to know all things and see all things with 100% equal clarity.
In order for you to know that I don't know everything with 100% equal clarity, you'd have to some sense of 100%. Do you?
Are you the Kwisatz Haderach?
One can only keep it secret for so long...