Is morality objective or subjective?

Author: Fallaneze

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@3RU7AL
Your desire dictates what you validate.

Your desire is a logical prerequisite to you validating anything.

If your desire to validate is not OBJECTIVE then it contaminates your validation with SUBJECTIVITY.

So you're conflating my desire with my method?
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@Athias
subjective does not equal sample-biased.
Yes it does.

Objective = unbiased

Subjective = biased and the most fundamental bias of all is sample-bias.
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@Athias
So you're conflating my desire with my method?
No.

They are intrinsically linked, not necessarily "the same thing".

I'm pointing out that your desire is prerequisite to your method.

Your method means nothing and can never happen without your prerequisite desire.

Your desire is biased, shaped by your personal feelings and whims.

This bias contaminates your method.

Desire is like the battery of a robot.

Without desire (a battery) then the robot (your method) is dead (moot).
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@Athias
This presumes the existence of metaphysical reality (noumenon,) one which you'd have to substantiate before incorporating it as fundamental to the description of subjective.
WTF.

NOUMENON = THE UNKNOWN

Do you know everything?

I'm going to guess not.

THEN IT FOLLOWS LOGICALLY AND NECESSARILY THAT THE UNKNOWN (NOUMENON) EXISTS AS A LOGICAL NECESSITY.
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@Athias
Subjective can be easily described by thinking of it as a contraction of "subject" and "perspective." "Subject's perspective."  While the tautology of supposing the subject's subjectivity is ontologically subjective (a priori) it does not exclude the epistemological foundation on which it is contingent.
Are you kidding me?

The only way to avoid the "subject's perspective" is for you to not be a subject with a perspective.

Perspective = point of view = sample-bias.

The only way for you to not have a "subject's perspective" would be for you to know all things and see all things with 100% equal clarity.

Are you the Kwisatz Haderach?
Fallaneze
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Moral truths are embedded in rationality and the parameters that define rationality are objective. 
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@3RU7AL
Yes it does.

Objective = unbiased

Subjective = biased and the most fundamental bias of all is sample-bias.
Substantiate this claim.

No.

They are intrinsically linked, not necessarily "the same thing".

I'm pointing out that your desire is prerequisite to your method.

Your method means nothing and can never happen without your prerequisite desire.

Your desire is biased, shaped by your personal feelings and whims.

This bias contaminates your method.

Desire is like the battery of a robot.

Without desire (a battery) then the robot (your method) is dead (moot).
Explain.

WTF.

NOUMENON = THE UNKNOWN
Somewhat, not exactly. Noumenon is independent from ontological subjectivity, not necessarily isolated from it. It is possible to represent an object in Noumenon, for example, objectively as a matter of coincidence. Of course, in order for us to gauge this accuracy we'd of course have to isolate it, but since we're discussing Noumenon, this coincidental representation is ontologically objective. This obviously is epistemologically insignificant.

Do you know everything?
I don't need to know everything; I need to know only the scope of everything.

I'm going to guess not.
That's biased.

Are you kidding me?

The only way to avoid the "subject's perspective" is for you to not be a subject with a perspective.
Who said anything about "avoiding"? Embrace it; incorporate it. To be ontologically subjective is not synonymous with to be inaccurate or epistemologically subjective.

The only way for you to not have a "subject's perspective" would be for you to know all things and see all things with 100% equal clarity.
In order for you to know that I don't know everything with 100% equal clarity, you'd have to some sense of 100%. Do you?

Are you the Kwisatz Haderach?
One can only keep it secret for so long...
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@Fallaneze
Moral truths are embedded in rationality and the parameters that define rationality are objective.
Please demonstrate.

Please give an example of any one moral truth and show how it is logically necessary based on the parameters that define rationality.
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@Athias
Objective = unbiased

Subjective = biased and the most fundamental bias of all is sample-bias.
Substantiate this claim.
Please be more specific.  I'm not sure I can break this down any further based on the dictionary definitions of "objective" and "subjective".
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@Athias
They are intrinsically linked, not necessarily "the same thing".

I'm pointing out that your desire is prerequisite to your method.

Your method means nothing and can never happen without your prerequisite desire.

Your desire is biased, shaped by your personal feelings and whims.

This bias contaminates your method.

Desire is like the battery of a robot.

Without desire (a battery) then the robot (your method) is dead (moot).
Explain.
Please be more specific.
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@Athias
NOUMENON = THE UNKNOWN
Somewhat, not exactly. Noumenon is independent from ontological subjectivity, not necessarily isolated from it.
Yes, necessarily isolated from it.

It is possible to represent an object in Noumenon, for example, objectively as a matter of coincidence.
Please provide an example.

Of course, in order for us to gauge this accuracy we'd of course have to isolate it, but since we're discussing Noumenon, this coincidental representation is ontologically objective.
Please provide an example.

This obviously is epistemologically insignificant.
Noumenon is epistemologically significant because it demarcates the actual boundary of your epistemology.
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@Athias
The only way to avoid the "subject's perspective" is for you to not be a subject with a perspective.
Who said anything about "avoiding"? Embrace it; incorporate it. To be ontologically subjective is not synonymous with to be inaccurate or epistemologically subjective.
You just defined "objective" as not reactive and not prejudiced.

So it stands to reason that if you are reactive and prejudiced, then you are subjective.
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@Athias
The only way for you to not have a "subject's perspective" would be for you to know all things and see all things with 100% equal clarity.
In order for you to know that I don't know everything with 100% equal clarity, you'd have to some sense of 100%. Do you?
The only thing I need to know in order to qualify your subjectivity is that you are communicating with me.
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@3RU7AL
Please be more specific.  I'm not sure I can break this down any further based on the dictionary definitions of "objective" and "subjective".
Why is subjective equivalent to "sample-biased"? Put emphasis on describing the sample in this context.

Please be more specific.
Why does bias "contaminate" the method?

Yes, necessarily isolated from it.
Why?

Please provide an example.
The existence of an atom. Our understanding, our conception, our representation are epistemologically subjective--that much is true. But it is possible that our subjective representation is in fact ontologically/metaphysically objective. Of course, we'll never know, making it epistemologically insignificant, but its existence bearing no contingency on our representation--that is, should one posit or assume an existence independent from subjective concept--remains unaffected.

Noumenon is epistemologically significant because it demarcates the actual boundary of your epistemology.
Noumenon isn't merely a tautological consequence of epistemology. It's an argument of its own using the premise "we don't know everything." It first assumes "everything," if not its content, its scope (counterintuitive.)
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@Athias
Noumenon isn't merely a tautological consequence of epistemology. It's an argument of its own using the premise "we don't know everything." It first assumes "everything," if not its content, its scope (counterintuitive.)
And your (counter-factual) position is that you do know everything?
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@Athias
Of course, we'll never know,
Please qualify this statement.
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@Fallaneze
For the purpose of this thread, "objective morality" is the position that some moral propositions, like "killing someone without sufficient justification is morally wrong" are *factually* true.
In order for this hypothesis to be considered logically coherent, you must present your proposed moral AXIOMS from which all of your moral-truths can be derived.

Kinda like moral-mathematics.

Otherwise it looks an awful lot like a smattering of ad-hoc bald assertions.
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@Athias
...if not its content, its scope...
NOUMENON makes absolutely no claims about content or scope.

It is merely a place-holder for "beyond perception and beyond comprehension".

A mind cannot know everything about itself.

You can't comprehensively study and perfectly map a tower that you're trapped inside.
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@3RU7AL
And your (counter-factual) position is that you do know everything?
No, my counterfactual is that i know what I know, I know what I can know, and I don't know what I can't know, making it meaningless. I don't need to quantify it by presuming everything.


Please qualify this statement.
We'll never know outside (assuming an "outside") our capacity to perceive (redundant.)

NOUMENON makes absolutely no claims about content or scope.

It is merely a place-holder for "beyond perception and beyond comprehension".
And that fundamentally presumes "beyond perception and beyond comprehension"; that's scope.

You can't comprehensively study and perfectly map a tower that you're trapped inside.
Assuming that you're trapped inside the tower which necessitate that you have an understanding of its scope.
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@Athias
And your (counter-factual) position is that you do know everything?
No, my counterfactual is that i know what I know,
I agree.

I know what I can know,
There are some things that I can know in the future that I don't currently know.

and I don't know what I can't know,
I also agree that I don't know what I can't know, but this doesn't exclude learning things that you can know but don't currently know.

making it meaningless.
I disagree.  Acknowledging that there is logically necessary information that you will never know is integral to understanding your epistemological limits and avoiding hubris.

There is information we don't currently know that we will know, but there is also fundamental information that we can only speculate about and never verify.

NOUMENON is an abstract place-holder for that fundamental information, for example, "what, if anything, "caused" the big-bang?" and "is the movement of quarks truly "random" or are their movements subject to some non-local hidden variable?"

I don't need to quantify it by presuming everything.
It sounds like we agree, but you're reading something into the word "NOUMENON" that I'm not.
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@3RU7AL
By assuming a limit to what we can know, we are necessarily positing the existence of that which we can't know.  It ceases to be an abstract placeholder and becomes a logically coherent existence in and of itself. This is not to be confused with what we've yet to know which will involve either the creation of new abstracts or the re-rationalization of old ones. Thus, we either concede that all knowledge is subjective--or to go even further "created"--or that there is such a thing as the objective, and logic is our bridge.
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@Athias
By assuming a limit to what we can know, we are necessarily positing the existence of that which we can't know.
Are you familiar with Gödel's incompleteness theorems?

A mind CANNOT know everything about itself.
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@Athias
This is not to be confused with what we've yet to know which will involve either the creation of new abstracts or the re-rationalization of old ones.
(Magnum Mysterium) versus (Mysterium Invisus)

I'd say that "existence" is probably not the best word to describe noumenon (mainly because the definition of "exists" requires empirical verifiability).  I believe it is a mistake to imagine noumenon as some sort of "thing" when it is merely an amorphous concept that acts as a place-holder for both "what we don't currently know" (Mysterium Invisus) and "what may be fundamentally unknowable" (Magnum Mysterium).  For example, noumenon might be eleventy-trillion layers of sci-fi multiverse, noumenon might be an elaborate alien computer simulation, noumenon might be Brahma's dream, noumenon might be a single super-intelligent (but not omniscient) demiurge that we humans are merely appendages of.  In all likelihood, it is conceptually, literally, ultimately and completely beyond our ability to comprehend.  All of this makes it very very very difficult for me to believe that we can consider (with any degree of confidence whatsoever) that noumenon is itself comprised of 100% pure, uncut, "objective reality".  I mean since noumenon may involve a great many (likely) possibly subjective layers (simulation/dream/multiverse) below our primitive perceptions, although we can deduce with the confidence afforded us by our logic, that there must be, at some level, "real" and "true" and "objective" "reality", we cannot have any confidence that what we are able to perceive has anything-at-all to do with the-hypothetical-objective-essence directly.  It's like the old story of the princess and the pea.  Clearly there is "something" under the bed, but what are the chances that a normal person would be able to detect it through ninety-nine high-quality mattresses(?).
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@Athias
Thus, we either concede that all knowledge is subjective--or to go even further "created"
Or an inevitable consequence of factors we can never fully know.

--or that there is such a thing as the objective, and logic is our bridge.
It sounds like you are simply jumping into the "objectivity" bandwagon because you don't like the smell of "subjectivity".

Please explain how "logic" makes one more coherent than the other.
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@3RU7AL
Are you familiar with Gödel's incompleteness theorems?
Yes.

A mind CANNOT know everything about itself.
You're once again presuming the scope of that which you argue can't be known. If the mind doesn't and can't know everything about itself, this would suggest a sense of everything, including that which it can't know.


I'd say that "existence" is probably not the best word to describe noumenon (mainly because the definition of "exists" requires empirical verifiability).  I believe it is a mistake to imagine noumenon as some sort of "thing" when it is merely an amorphous concept that acts as a place-holder for both "what we don't currently know" (Mysterium Invisus) and "what may be fundamentally unknowable" (Magnum Mysterium).  For example, noumenon might be eleventy-trillion layers of sci-fi multiverse, noumenon might be an elaborate alien computer simulation, noumenon might be Brahma's dream, noumenon might be a single super-intelligent (but not omniscient) demiurge that we humans are merely appendages of.  In all likelihood, it is conceptually, literally, ultimately and completely beyond our ability to comprehend.  All of this makes it very very very difficult for me to believe that we can consider (with any degree of confidence whatsoever) that noumenon is itself comprised of 100% pure, uncut, "objective reality".
Then what meaning is there in conceptualizing that which is beyond our ability to comprehend? How do we even conceptualize that which is beyond our capacity to comprehend in the first place?

Or an inevitable consequence of factors we can never fully know.
"Fully know" suggests incomplete knowledge. Is there "knowledge" beyond us? (And I'm not talking about the yet to be known.)

It sounds like you are simply jumping into the "objectivity" bandwagon because you don't like the smell of "subjectivity".

Please explain how "logic" makes one more coherent than the other.
On the contrary. As I've mentioned before, I lean toward subjective idealism. I very much like the smell of subjectivity. I just don't conflate "independent" with "isolated" unless we're controlling for one or the other.
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@Athias
I just don't conflate "independent" with "isolated"...
Ok, master hair-splitter, what's the functional/relevant/salient/germane distinction between "independent" and "isolated"?
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@3RU7AL
Ok, master hair-splitter, what's the functional/relevant/salient/germane distinction between "independent" and "isolated"?
We'll use your princess and the pea story. You said that "Clearly there is something under the bed," suggesting ontological objectivity; now this is independent (does not rely) of detection. But does this infer separation or isolation? The detection is fundamentally tied to the something under the bed (otherwise what are you attempting to detect) but it's being something under the bed is not informed by one's detection.

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@Athias
We'll use your princess and the pea story. You said that "Clearly there is something under the bed," suggesting ontological objectivity; now this is independent (does not rely) of detection. But does this infer separation or isolation? The detection is fundamentally tied to the something under the bed (otherwise what are you attempting to detect) but it's being something under the bed is not informed by one's detection.
Thank you, that actually makes a lot of sense.

Subjectivity is a manifestation of NOUMENON.

They are not fundamentally separate, they are necessarily and fundamentally similar (de facto MONISM), HOweVer, LOGICALLY we cannot "reverse-engineer" our subjective manifestation to derive "incomprehensible objective truth".

We can only say that NOUMENON is a logical necessity.  It denotes the (the somewhat fuzzy) barrier between the known and the unknown, between the knowable and the unknowable between the comprehensible and the incomprehensible.  It is MAGNUM MYSTERIUM. [LINK]

It's like the border of the observable universe.  We know there's a border.  There is no logical contradiction with identifying the border.  What's on the other side of that border?  NOUMENON.
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@Athias
Is there "knowledge" beyond us? (And I'm not talking about the yet to be known.)
Well, logically, we know it can't be "no-thing".  Because there can't be "no-thing".  There is no such thing as "no-thing" because it can only be no-where and no-size and no-shape and no-substance and no-information.  It actually defines itself out of existence (Ex Nihilo).

If it can't be "no-thing" then it must be NOUMENON (not some-thing, but also not-nothing).
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@Athias
Then what meaning is there in conceptualizing that which is beyond our ability to comprehend? How do we even conceptualize that which is beyond our capacity to comprehend in the first place?
It emphasizes our epistemological limits (AND) it "answers" idiotic questions claimed to be the exclusive domain of religion.