>I agree! An internal feeling can cause an outward expression, even an involuntary one (though usually mature adults are able to maintain composure).
If it is involuntary, then the person has no moral judgement to answer for.
>And people can make voluntary outward expressions to a private audience in a private setting.
Good.
>So, again, what are we talking about? Are we talking about only the internalized feeling of emotion, or are we including the outward expressions of emotion?
Why would we exclude the involuntary action the emotion may cause? And how does expressing the emotion in confidence change the situation?
>you start sneaking expressing that emotion.
Your choice of the word "sneaking" betrays your PC liberalism. If for example, an emotion makes me cry, why would we need to separate the emotion from the crying?
>Once we start making outward expressions, the answer changes.
How? If the emotion itself does not make one a bigot, how does telling someone about the emotion do that?
>My real question is: if we aren't talking about the outward expressions, why do you keep bringing them up?
I didn't bring them up slick. You did, and you have kept bringing them up in each of your posts. Whether the emotion is expressed, involuntarily or later voluntarily, how does that change the implication of the emotion itself?
Is your trigger finger itching?