Atheism is simply "a lack of belief"
The debate is finished. The distribution of the voting points and the winner are presented below.
After 4 votes and with 6 points ahead, the winner is...
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Full Resolution: The definition of atheism should be accepted as merely "a lack of belief in a god"
The definition contrasts with Con's position that the definition of atheism entails a belief in the non-existence of any gods. The purpose of the debate is to determine which of these two definitions should be considered the most reasonable to accept and utilize.
Definitions:
Definitions: Worldview --> a comprehensive conception or apprehension of the world especially from a specific standpoint. https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/worldview
Ism --> noun: a belief (or system of beliefs) accepted as authoritative by some group or school Synonyms doctrine philosophical system philosophy school of thought https://www.freethesaurus.com/ism
archaic : godlessness especially in conduct : UNGODLINESS, WICKEDNESS https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/atheism
Agnosticism: n. 1. The doctrine that certainty about first principles or absolute truth is unattainable and that only perceptual phenomena are objects of exact knowledge.
Disbelief: The refusal to believe that something is true (Cambridge International Dictionary of English-1995). Disbelief: Refusal or reluctance to believe (American Heritage Dictionary of English Language-1996).
Etymology n. 1. The origin and historical development of a linguistic form as shown by determining its basic elements, earliest known use, and changes in form and meaning, tracing its transmission from one language to another,
Naturalism --> 3. Philosophy The system of thought holding that all phenomena can be explained in terms of natural causes and laws. 4. Theology The doctrine that all religious truths are derived from nature and natural causes and not from revelation.
Secularism: n 1. (Philosophy) philosophy a doctrine that rejects religion, esp in ethics 2. the attitude that religion should have no place in civil affairs
umanism (ˈhjuːməˌnɪzəm) n Humanism: 1. (Philosophy) the denial of any power or moral value superior to that of humanity; the rejection of religion in favour of a belief in the advancement of humanity by its own efforts
- Because the dictionary says so
- Because grammar and syntax says so
- Because scholars say so
- Because atheists act like they believe no gods exist
RFD in comments https://www.debateart.com/debates/3403/comment-links/42552
As initiator and maker of extraordinary claims, PRO has the BURDEN of PROOF here.
PRO offers us three fairly different standards to apply:
1) Atheism is simply "a lack of belief"
2) The definition of atheism should be accepted as merely "a lack of belief in a god"
3) [A lack of belief] should be considered the most reasonable to accept and utilize.
PRO clearly states that #2 is the Full Resolution and so #2 will be used to establish PRO's burden. That is, this VOTER won't apply the much lower standard of "lack of belief is one simple definition for atheism" or the much lower standard of "most reasonable." #2 does appear to be PRO's intent. PRO must prove that atheism has only one acceptable definition. Given that PRO is contradicting the body of Western scholarship regarding this definition, PRO has set himself a nearly impossible task. PRO defines all kinds of terms except for the one relevant term, ATHEISM.
PRO argues that dictionaries should do away with the most strict , precise definition of atheism and only use the more broad definition mostly overlapping with agnosticism.
Logical Incoherence
PRO argues that strict atheism is incoherent because there are too many concepts of god to actively disbelieve them all. Where the rule that prohibits categorical denial came from, PRO does not say. To me, merely refusing to accept any supernatural explanation is sufficient denial of the possibility of all gods, by definition. To say, "strictly atheist until proof of GOD" seems perfectly rational and strictly atheist without need to consult each and every god conception.
Nevertheless, PRO fails to explain why a logically incoherent concept does not merit its own word. Just because the fear of spiders is irrational doesn't imply that the word arachnophobia ought not to be defined.
Practical Uselessness
PRO uses weak analogy to argue that because agnosticism and atheism are alike performatively in terms of non-worship, they must also be identical in terms of theory. That is, there is no practical distinction between the roommate who does not go to church because he does not believe there could ever be a god and the roommate who does not go to church because he does not pretend to know whether god is real. A scientist is the same thing as a skeptic, in essence.
PRO does explain what word we would use to replace atheism if strict atheism were re-defined to only mean the same thing as agnosticism.
CON fails to address either idea directly but does a fine job of establishing the strict usage of atheism is a popular and commonplace understanding and correctly challenges PRO authority to presume redefinition without even basic reliance on precedence in literature or religious thought. CON's reliance on sources here ultimately makes CON's affirmative the strongest, even as CON neglected his duties to negate PRO. CON's strongest argument is that absence of belief is more agnostic than atheistic. CON also argues that ATHEISM in its strictest sense is correct usage.
PRO never really argued against the utility of using the broad, duplicative definition of atheism although PRO clearly expected as much.
In R2-
1) Etymology of Atheism- PRO invents an entirely fictional etymology for the word atheism without reliance on even one work of reference.
2) PRO drops the evidence for the ordinary usage of atheism in the strictest sense saying its cherry picked.
3) PRO drops the evidence for the commonplace definition by saying its cherry picked and then tries to refute by using a MW definition of atheist, not ATHEISM and that MW definition relies on a definition of ATHEISM that falsifies PRO's thesis
"a strong disbelief in the existence of a god or any gods"
4 & 5 PRO's strongest counters are that worldview and propositional position are not necessary to the categorization of ATHEISM.
6) PRO rejects CON's sources without explanation
7) PRO asserts his authority is based in reason but PRO has given no rational argument against the regular usage of an ordinary word, on a rational argument against strict atheism ideologically.
(cont in COMMENTS)
The entire discussion revolves around the resolution and the proper usage ("should") and interpretation of the word "atheist" itself.
CON argues that because the word itself has been used in some cases and by some people to mean "belief in the impossibility of any and all god(s)" that means that the word itself ALWAYS means that and only that.
This is obviously inaccurate.
CON is making an argumentum ad populum AND an argumentum ad verecundiam (with their reliance on famous quotes).
PRO confirms the resolution by comparing the word "apolitical" to the word "atheist" which elegantly illustrates that simply adding an "a" prefix to another word DOES NOT necessarily mean that you are "anti" or "the opposite" of that word.
RFD in comments
I'm just honestly surprised at the trying to claim a definition for a word with a link that shows that definition is used when said word is preceded by 'not'. Like, how does someone honestly think they can get away with that when they include the URL?
At least with my vote I let any possible bias on my end be made clear in the first paragraph before going into my justification for points (thus making it so if there is a problem with my vote it is apparent). The idea of just making BS statements, being inconsistent, fallacious, and outright dishonest in order to justify a vote though? It is insane.
I had to block 3RU7AL just yesterday, due to the sophistry BS.
**************************************************
>Reported Vote: Mall // Mod action: Removed
>Voting Policy: info.debateart.com/terms-of-service/voting-policy
>Points Awarded: 0
>Reason for Decision:
Both positions are actually in agreement. A lack of belief is a belief in a lack there of. Either position will have a negative or opposite like the yin and yang.
>Reason for Mod Action:
Even if the voter chooses not to award points, the voter must provide some evaluation of the arguments given in the debate. This RFD does not discuss any material from the debate itself, merely providing the voter's views on the resolution and the positions of the debaters.
**************************************************
>Reported Vote: Conservallectual // Mod action: Removed
>Voting Policy: info.debateart.com/terms-of-service/voting-policy
>Points Awarded: 3 to Con
>Reason for Decision:
The reasons are much better.
>Reason for Mod Action:
The voter must address specific points made by both sides in the debate and consider how they function with the resolution. The above RFD does not explain the voter's decision beyond vaguely stating that one side had better reasons.
Did you really think no one would look at your linked source? Your second definition literally follows from "not merely". You know, the word 'not' is important there, right?
To copy from it,
"not merely
— used to say that one thing is true and that another thing is also true"
Don't be a dishonest hack your entire life.
MERELY meaning:
1 : only, just used to say that someone or something is **small, unimportant**, etc. used to describe the only reason for something or the only effect of something;
2 : used to say that one thing is true and that another thing is also true
https://www.britannica.com/dictionary/merely
This has always been a purely voluntary interaction.
""SHOULD BE ACCEPTED"
DOES NOT MEAN
"SHOULD BE THE ONLY POSSIBLE DEFINITION""
You are literally ignoring the word MERELY, which literally means ONLY.
Ya, I'm done with this discussion. You are clearly being dishonest at this point.
I'd need to take a closer look at this debate before I make a call on his vote. You can report it if you wish, I haven't had an opportunity to get to the more recently reported votes on this debate just yet.
Quoted directly from the debate description:
Full Resolution: The definition of atheism should be accepted as merely "a lack of belief in a god"
"SHOULD BE ACCEPTED"
"SHOULD BE ACCEPTED"
DOES NOT MEAN
"SHOULD BE THE ONLY POSSIBLE DEFINITION"
MANY WORDS HAVE MULTIPLE DEFINITIONS
INCLUDING THE WORD YOU CHOSE AS AN EXAMPLE, NAMELY "ONE"
> ...counter it with an equally compelling (aka, scientific)...
If the best "survey" on the topic is the OPINIONS of a ridiculously small sample size of over-privileged Oxford students, there is no need to "counter survey".
Specifically because no survey on the topic could possibly refute the debate resolution.
Just because you personally find this particular survey "compelling" does not mean it is relevant to the topic at hand.
As I've already pointed out, language is NOT democratic (51% winner take all).
"PRO personally believes that the term "atheist" is best described as someone who "lacks a belief" in any and all (theistic) gods that they are currently aware of.
CON believes that nobody anywhere should use that definition"
And this makes it clear that you are not voting based on the actual resolution. Pro needs to argue that atheism is merely the lack of belief, but yet you have now changed the resolution to one where Con has the full BoP to show that no one should use that definition. These are two different resolutions, and based on this comment it is clear you aren't actually voting on this debate proper.
@whiteflame, does this not constitute reason to think this vote is fraudulent? If you are voting by acting like the debate resolution is something other than what it is, then it seems as if the vote violates the voting policy, specifically,
"Goes to the side that, within the context of the debate rounds, successfully affirms (vote pro) or negates (vote con) the resolution"
> I have made clear criticisms of your points and then added an observation, insulting as it might be, on top of that.
You talk about red-herrings and then claim that your characterizations are not intended to discredit my arguments?
Make up your mind.
"I was specifically presenting a SPECIFC example where etymology was OBVIOUSLY NOT RELEVANT."
That was completely irrelevant to the actual discussion, yes. Do you not know what a Red Herring is?
"Thanks for the argumentum ad hominem."
Do you know what an ad hominem is? It is to attack the person as a way of attacking the position. I have made clear criticisms of your points and then added an observation, insulting as it might be, on top of that. That means that it is not an ad hominem, even if it might look that way to certain types of people.
"Honestly, at this rate I think you just want CON to be the winner (likely because you agree with CON's definition) and are just talking out your ass in order to justify it."
Only one person here has not used fallacies, has had their vote removed by moderation, etc.
Furthermore, if I was biased in that manner then I would have assigned the argument points to Con.
Everything was justified in my RFD without, I believe, a show of bias. The same cannot necessarily be said about you.
"instead of resting on your 561 individuals (not a representative sample) who you believe agree with you"
Way to just dismiss literally the only scientific survey that sought how a general populace views the term 'atheist'. I admitted its limitations at the very beginning when I brought it up, but also made it clear that said limitations are not as impactful when YOU and anyone else on Pro's side cannot counter it with an equally compelling (aka, scientific) poll/survey to show any other result.
I'm not sure if there's a specific number of vote bombs, but if it becomes a common trend, we'll ban you from voting. You won't be banned from the site for vote bombing alone.
> In that case, language has no 'should' for meaning, and thus no one can win (yet you voted someone to win?).
PRO is obviously arguing from their own personal perspective (how could this NOT be the case).
PRO personally believes that the term "atheist" is best described as someone who "lacks a belief" in any and all (theistic) gods that they are currently aware of.
CON believes that nobody anywhere should use that definition (and furthermore that PRO and anyone who calls themselves an "atheist" is obviously illogical, while presumably the "theists" are super smart and extra logical for believing in unfalsifiable gods).
Honestly, at this rate I think you just want CON to be the winner (likely because you agree with CON's definition) and are just talking out your ass in order to justify it.
Thanks for the argumentum ad hominem.
Perhaps you could try to present the strongest possible case against the debate resolution instead of resting on your 561 individuals (not a representative sample) who you believe agree with you (who also did not say that "lack of belief" was an "unreasonable" interpretation of the word).
> In which case, bringing up that objection was a Red Herring in this discussion.
No.
No it was not.
I was specifically presenting a SPECIFC example where etymology was OBVIOUSLY NOT RELEVANT.
"I never made the claim that "etymology is irrelevant" IN ALL POSSIBLE CASES."
In which case, bringing up that objection was a Red Herring in this discussion.
"Allowing other people to "self-define" is crucial."
In that case, language has no 'should' for meaning, and thus no one can win (yet you voted someone to win?). Someone very well could say that to them being an atheist means to believe that God is their best friend, and you have zero way of saying that usage is incorrect or that atheist should mean something else.
Of course, that is unless we consider that language is inherently tied to social cohesion, and thus we go right back to argumentum ad populum being non-fallacious.
Language is unnecessary if there is only a single individual, it only becomes a thing when there is the attempt to communicate ideas between individuals. If we let every individual use whatever definition for whatever word then we end up with no cohesion, and thus language becomes pointless.
Honestly, at this rate I think you just want Pro to be the winner (likely because you agree with Pro's definition) and are just talking out your ass in order to justify it. This explains your inconsistencies, your Red Herring, your strange way of trying to describe what language even is, etc. If I am right, and I am beginning to suspect that this is the case, then this discussion becomes pointless as no matter what point is made you won't actually take it into real consideration.
I think you have to write much more then that, but I agree with the general outlook of your vote
How many vote bombs can you have before you are banned from the site?
> are inherently contradictory.
No, they are not.
Because they refer to two very different examples.
> Relying on the 'a' prefix is to inherently tie the discussion to etymology, but you also are saying that etymology is irrelevant.
I never made the claim that "etymology is irrelevant" IN ALL POSSIBLE CASES.
> Language is inherently a tool used to communicate ideas between individuals.
BETWEEN INDIVIDUALS.
BETWEEN INDIVIDUALS. This is key. I often find that "disagreements" are actually "miscommunications" between people with different AXIOMS and different definitions. Specifically between "atheists" and "christians" who often try to paint each other saying "you're not a TRUE christian because..." and "you're not a TRUE atheist because..." instead of ASKING each other what they personally MEAN when they call THEMSELVES one thing or the other thing.
Allowing other people to "self-define" is crucial.
It's like finding out one of your co-workers self-identifies as a muslim and then asking them why the like flying planes into buildings.
And when they say, that's not what it means to be a muslim (to them personally), you try to tell them they are not a TRUE muslim if they don't like flying planes into buildings.
This is exactly what CON is doing to PRO.
Can you consider elaborating a bit? In such a close debate, every point matters, and you just threw him 3 points for a one line reason that can't be deciphered in a meaningful sense.
"It's certainly not because of the "history and etymology" of those particular words."
and
"PRO confirms the resolution by comparing the word "apolitical" to the word "atheist" which elegantly illustrates that simply adding an "a" prefix to another word DOES NOT necessarily mean that you are "anti" or "the opposite" of that word."
are inherently contradictory. Relying on the 'a' prefix is to inherently tie the discussion to etymology, but you also are saying that etymology is irrelevant. This shows clear lack of consistency on your part.
I do think etymology plays a weak role, as the history and origin of words tends to be tied to usage to an extent. Again, as I have continued to say, the key is context. Language is inherently a tool used to communicate ideas between individuals. That is what language is. This means that that context needs to be taken into consideration when it comes to the meaning of words.
If you are looking at things from a colloquial level, then common usage is what is relevant, and thus argumentum ad populum is non-fallacious.
If you are looking at things from a meme perspective, like with 'Let's go Brandon', then it becomes important to look at historical usages and see where the meme usage originates (and possibly how it has evolved), and thus how it is used within a particular subset of people (those that use the meme and the intended audience), even if that is not society as a whole.
If you are looking at things from an academic perspective, well language becomes standardized at points within academia and so using academic resources is a good way of determining meaning.
Etc.
As such, 'Let's go Brandon' can have different meanings depending on the context it is being used in.
"which according to your "context" qualifier would only apply to the Oxford campus"
When it is literally the only scientific survey of a general audience, even if it was limited to students on Oxford campus, it gives more weight to the survey than any random poll you could find.
"This is a non-trivial percentage of your "Oxford students""
Which becomes trivial when you consider that the 'is convinced that there is no God or gods' and 'believes that there is no God or gods' are similar enough that taking a more general 'no god(s)' approach creates such a massive majority (nearly 80%) in comparison, and that even if you don't find this appropriate that the 'believes that there is no God or gods.' is a majority (not just a plurality).
"Don't you think it's a bit of a conflict of interest to vote in a debate where you were counseling one of the participants?"
If I was helping them throughout the debate, sure. I didn't though, I only gave advice leading up to R1.
It is no different then if you regularly talked with someone about a topic, saw them debate it, and then gave a vote.
So long as you did not actually assist them throughout the debate, it does not seem necessarily like a conflict of interest has occurred.
I also made sure it was clear that I had done so in my RFD so that if a mod took issue with it that it could be removed (and I would have no complaint about that).
Please challenge my axioms and or point out a specific logical error and or provide a counter-factual for the following:
PRO confirms the resolution by comparing the word "apolitical" to the word "atheist" which elegantly illustrates that simply adding an "a" prefix to another word DOES NOT necessarily mean that you are "anti" or "the opposite" of that word.
What do you think the words "let's go Brandon" mean and why do you think they have that particular meaning ?
> 3. A person who lacks a belief in God or gods. 93 (13.6%)
This is a non-trivial percentage of your "Oxford students" (which according to your "context" qualifier would only apply to the Oxford campus).
> If everyone uses the word one to mean the number that is between zero and two but some random person starts using the word one to mean paintbrush then the person would, in society, come off as speaking nonsense or speaking in a difficult to understand way (if they realized this meaning change). Because language functions as part of social cohesion, this automatically makes this usage of language worse than the common usage of language.
One might use the word one to refer to oneself without contradicting other interpretations of the word based on CONTEXT.
There is very little FUNCTIONAL difference between "lack of belief" or "unconvinced" (AND) "belief (faith) in the impossibility of any and all conceivable god(s)".
It is not anywhere close to the difference between "one" and "paintbrush".
(IFF) the debate resolution included "the most common and most popular understanding of the term ATHEISM" (THEN) making an argumentum ad populum would be appropriate
What do you think the words "let's go Brandon" mean and why do you think they have that particular meaning ?
It's certainly not because of the "history and etymology" of those particular words.
It's certainly not because "the majority of english speakers" have a "common understanding" of those particular words.
It's certainly not because "the academic establishment" has used those particular words in "highly respected" publications.
What do you think the words "let's go Brandon" mean and why do you think they have that particular meaning ?
I get the point, I don't think it holds any water towards negating the resolution. I could explain why but actual my opponent never went there.
Don't you think it's a bit of a conflict of interest to vote in a debate where you were counseling one of the participants?
It is actually one of the things I recommended Con to address before the debate began.
The thing is that while there might be a lot of polls that people can appeal to, there is only one academic survey of popular usage that has ever been done and published. The source is the article 'Research Note: Sociology and the Study of Atheism' by Dr. Bullivant.
Of course, it is limited in nature (having only interviewed from a general population of Oxford students in 2007), but the fact that it remains the only "scientific survey"/ academically run and published survey is powerful. The results of the survey are as follows:
1. A person who is convinced that there is no God or gods. 199 (28.1%)
2. A person who believes that there is no God or gods. 362 (51.2%)
3. A person who lacks a belief in God or gods. 93 (13.6%)
4. Don’t know. 4 (0.6%)
5. Something else. (please specify) 29 (4.1%)
6. Both ticked one (or more) of the given options and specified something else. 6 (0.8%)
7. Ticked two or more of the given options. 14 (2.0%)
From it, we can see that some variation of "no gods" is wildly the most understood definition of the word while the "lack a belief" is quite small. Combine that with the "no gods" variation being consistent with academic usage as well and this could have been a strong line of reasoning Con could have used.
This survey automatically has more weight than any other that could be brought up because it is a scientific one, in a peer reviewed source. This makes it so that the limits to the original survey, as well as it being 15 years old at this point, would not be nearly as strong a rebuttal as no reliable alternative could be brought up instead.
It is one reason I am disappointed in Con's arguments to an extent. I recommended this and instead Con used "atheism has a world view" instead.
"Language, on a colloquial level, is inherently tied to societal communication. If society, at large, understand a word to mean X then using that word to mean Y creates confusion"
It's a great point, one which I was more than prepared to address if Con had chosen to make it. He didn't.
"the best and or most correct usage of that word"
There is no such thing as a 'most correct usage' of language outside of the context that it is used in. If that is socially, then how it is understood by said society at large is absolutely the "most correct usage". If everyone uses the word one to mean the number that is between zero and two but some random person starts using the word one to mean paintbrush then the person would, in society, come off as speaking nonsense or speaking in a difficult to understand way (if they realized this meaning change). Because language functions as part of social cohesion, this automatically makes this usage of language worse than the common usage of language. As such, argumentum ad populum is not a fallacious use of reasoning in this context.
Just like in the example of emotional appeal I gave. No one can cry about an argumentum ad passiones if the topic is one where emotion is a key player (like if a particular story is a sad story or not).
And if we move to academic usage, we end up right back at how language is employed being one where crying 'argumentum ad verecundiam' is nonsense as well (as I already explained before).
The only way you can avoid this is to take some sort of realist approach to language, which is nonsensical, or to argue that language is not something that comes about due to a social dynamic (which is the only way you "language is anarchic" statement makes sense), but that would certainly be something difficult to ever be able to show as reasonable.
> I'm sorry, but how is an argumentum ad populum a fallacy in the context of this debate?
The idea that "the most common usage of a word" = "the best and or most correct usage of that word" is an argumentum ad populum fallacy.
The idea that "academic usage of a word" = "the best and or most correct usage of that word" is an argumentum ad verecundiam.
Language is not "democratic" and language is also not "autocratic".
Language is "anarchic".
Even CON argued that using the term "atheist" to mean "belief (faith) in the impossibility of any and all conceivable god(s)" is illogical.
This point, (that this particular usage of the word is logically incoherent) is an "argumentum ad logos" and actually quite a strong argument AGAINST CONs own particular preferred usage of the word "atheist".
"CON is making an argumentum ad populum AND an argumentum ad verecundiam (with their reliance on famous quotes)."
I'm sorry, but how is an argumentum ad populum a fallacy in the context of this debate? It isn't a debate on what the 'fact of the matter' is, it is about how a word should be understood. Language, on a colloquial level, is inherently tied to societal communication. If society, at large, understand a word to mean X then using that word to mean Y creates confusion. Arguing that adhering to the societal understanding of a word, with understanding that societal understanding can shift over time, is a legitimate line of argument due to the nature of language. It is like claiming that someone is making an appeal to emotion fallacy when the debate is on which story is saddest.
Furthermore, language within an academic field is also standardized, to an extent, in order to ensure that miscommunication of ideas does not occur. Sometimes there is an authority that is not fallacious to appeal to. An argumentum ad verecundiam is specifically an appeal to an irrelevant authority, and while Con did commit this at times, some of those quotes are from more academic sources.
To quote from https://philosophy.lander.edu/logic/authority.html
"The argument from appeal to authority, the ad verecundiam fallacy, is characterized with examples and shown to be a fallacy when the appeal is to an irrelevant authority and nonfallacious when the appeal is to a relevant authority."
When it comes to academic usage of a word, appealing to a relevant authority (which Con did) can be useful. Sure, Con did not necessarily argue well enough that we should have our colloquial usage of a term more inline with the academic usage, which is something that could rightly be pointed out, but to argue that this is an 'argumentum ad verecundiam' without any actual detail is the misuse the fallacy.
The only one of these fallacies that could actually be relevant to the discussion is the argumentum ad verecundiam, but even then you need to actually go into detail on how this is being committed or else it looks like you are just pulling fallacies out your ass in order to justify your vote without even fully understanding them.
You're including implications that I did not imply.
"Not a number" means just what I said. It can be more than one if there is more than one pertinent point based on how you're evaluating it. If not, then it still remains important not to just exclude large portions of the debate without reason. So when you say:
"If there is a single argument that either supports or refutes the resolution, by itself, aren't all other arguments and counter-arguments superfluous (especially if they are repetitive logical fallacies)?"
that all comes with an explanation, a reason why that single argument is the most important and why other arguments in the debate are superfluous. Pointing out that that they are fallacious is one way to do that.
> I don't know why you keep referencing things I haven't said.
I'm referencing what you implied AND what you say below.
> I didn't specify a number of "specific points" because there is no number.
Not a number apparently means "more than one".
> You should be covering enough to represent the points that each side made.
Why would anyone do this?
If there is a single argument that either supports or refutes the resolution, by itself, aren't all other arguments and counter-arguments superfluous (especially if they are repetitive logical fallacies)?
> That doesn't mean you should be exhaustive, but that also doesn't mean that you can pick one point per side if there are a lot of points each side presents.
There are a lot of words, but not a lot of points.
> I never said there are "KEY POINTS" of any sort. Don't know why you keep putting that in quotes as though you're citing me.
Because, as you just said, "That doesn't mean you should be exhaustive, but that also doesn't mean that you can pick one point per side"
Which means, there are some "KEY POINTS" that are REQUIRED for your personal qualification of an "adequate RFD".
> Generally, though, if you're going to call much of the debate "FILLER", it's a good idea to justify why you believe that's true, i.e. what makes those arguments unsubstantial from your perspective.
Any text within the debate that neither supports nor refutes the debate resolution is "FILLER" (and should be ignored as such).
CON: atheists are illogical because you can't disprove all conceivable god(s) (because many of them are "unfalsifiable")
PRO: not all atheists "disbelieve" in all conceivable god(s), (for example, a DEIST is functionally "not a theist") many of them are simply "unconvinced" of the existence (and or significance) of any specific "theistic" god(s) (for example, "apolitical" does not always mean "anti-political" and or "strong disbelief in the concept of politics" but rather, "disinterested in politics")
CON: you're wrong because famous people agree with me and because the word itself "atheist" means "anti-theist"
I'll vote when I can
I don't know why you keep referencing things I haven't said.
I didn't specify a number of "specific points" because there is no number. You should be covering enough to represent the points that each side made. That doesn't mean you should be exhaustive, but that also doesn't mean that you can pick one point per side if there are a lot of points each side presents.
I never said there are "KEY POINTS" of any sort. Don't know why you keep putting that in quotes as though you're citing me. Generally, though, if you're going to call much of the debate "FILLER", it's a good idea to justify why you believe that's true, i.e. what makes those arguments unsubstantial from your perspective.
How many "specific points" are required ?
PLEASE TELL ME WHICH SPECIFIC POINTS YOU BELIEVE ARE THE "KEY POINTS" BECAUSE 99.9% OF THIS DEBATE IS FILLER
The entire discussion revolves around the resolution and the proper usage ("should") and interpretation of the word "atheist" itself.
CON argues that because the word itself has been used in some cases and by some people to mean "belief in the impossibility of any and all god(s)" that means that the word itself ALWAYS means that and only that.
This is obviously inaccurate.
CON is making an argumentum ad populum AND an argumentum ad verecundiam (with their reliance on famous quotes).
PRO confirms the resolution by comparing the word "apolitical" to the word "atheist" which elegantly illustrates that simply adding an "a" prefix to another word DOES NOT necessarily mean that you are "anti" or "the opposite" of that word.
PGA2. 0 put up a good performance in this debate
I didn't say anything about "key points." I said you need to cover specific arguments from both debaters and why you did or didn't find them convincing. Saying that Pro presented an argument that included an apolitical comparison to atheist doesn't tell me why you found the argument more convincing. Con presented arguments, not just quotes, so just dismissing his entire case on the basis that there were quotes is not sufficient.
PRO wins "more convincing arguments" with the "apolitical" comparison to "atheist" (WHICH OBVIOUSLY CONFIRMS THE RESOLUTION)
CON fails to address PRO's argument (specifically the one noted above) and instead present famous quotes which have absolutely no bearing on arguments presented
PLEASE TELL ME WHICH SPECIFIC POINTS YOU BELIEVE ARE THE "KEY POINTS" BECAUSE 99.9% OF THIS DEBATE IS FILLER
"American Atheists demonstrate it has all kinds of beliefs and opinions about God, and they do deny God"
Which one?
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>Reported Vote: 3RU7AL // Mod action: Removed
>Voting Policy: info.debateart.com/terms-of-service/voting-policy
>Points Awarded: 3 to Pro
>Reason for Decision:
PRO confirms the resolution with sound logic
CON fails to address PRO's argument and instead present famous quotes which have absolutely no bearing on arguments presented
PRO wins "more convincing arguments" with the "apolitical" comparison to "atheist"
>Reason for Mod Action:
The voter must address specific points made by both sides in the debate and consider how they function with the resolution. The voter does not consider specific points presented by either side aside from pointing out an argument from Con that he dismisses, nor does he consider how any of these points impact under the resolution. The voter does add onto his RFD in the comments, but as written, this is insufficient.
RFD(1/3)
Full disclosure, PGA and I did talk about how one would best go about making the Con case before this debate. Once the debate kicked off I did step back and am going to try to judge this from a neutral POV.
The tricky thing about this debate is that, depending on context, language can be either prescriptive (as is usually the case in academia) or descriptive (when it comes to more colloquial usage). As such, the resolution becomes tricky to actually argue for one way or the other (as pointed out by some in the comments). After all, by what standards do we determine how a word should be used?
To start with, I think both sides conducted themselves well.
Nothing to complain about in regards to Pro's spelling and grammar.
I am, however, docking Con points on the spelling and grammar due to Round 2. While the spacing issue can be understandable as a formatting issue, what really takes it for me is the statement "I agree, it is logically untenable, yet that is whatatheists do by citing "lack of evidence" and adenial that God/god exists." At first I thought this was Con conceding, but it is increasingly obvious that it is just Con not properly portraying the idea trying to be conveyed. It is the combination of this with the spacing issue that really makes me have to grant Pro points here.
Sources, on the other hand, I think undeniably go to Con. Within Pro's arguments he only made two uses of outside sources, one of which was a duplicate from the Description and the other was to use the Merriam-Webster definition of 'atheist'. On the other hand, Con made use of resources from Oxford, the SEP, etymonline, etc. to help construct his case and try to strengthen it. I won't say all of Con's sources were great, but when it comes to covering etymology and the more academic usage these sources help with building and strengthening Con's arguments. Because of this, I award source points to Con.
Arguments is trickier, however, and I will break down each round and give my thoughts on where I think things stood at various points.
ROUND 1
Pro makes two arguments in his round 1, and I must confess that I find the first argument used perplexing. Pro argues that "defining atheism as the belief in the non-existence of any gods is at its core logically untenable" due to the term god having many definitions, yet does so in a debate that a particular term should have only one definition. Appealing that a definition can be vague or have too many meanings in a debate for a term to be considered to only have a single accepted meaning seems like quite the issue that Con can capitalize on, but does Con actually capitalize on this issue?
Pro's argument on practical uselessness does, however, seem like a stronger argument, though not one I think is necessarily convincing. I think Con can refute it, but the question is if Con actually does or not.
RFD(2/3)
So, how was Con's first round? I would say it is a mixed bag.
I think Con's etymology argument was quite good, but a little short. The "atheism defined" section also is, I believe, quite powerful as in it Con looks at the academic usage of the word to support his position. I also think bringing up the SEP for the propositional definition is useful, but think that it doesn't constitute much of a new argument beyond the academic usage argument (these could be combined into one argument).
I think that Reddit user Wokeupbug does make convincing points, but the issue is that I think Con did not go into enough detail on this line of argumentation and so this section really did not seem that strong. We can only judge the parts Con used, and so sadly this section (which had potential) ended up wasted. I also think the "atheists in their own words" section was not useful, as all it takes is for Pro to show some self-identified atheists disagreeing to counter the usefulness of this line of argumentation.
Last, the section "an atheist has a worldview" is the section I think actually did more harm than good to Con. This section tries to attribute to atheists views outside of the non-existence of god, but none of the other strong arguments employed by Con would actually agree with this section. Using the academic literature wouldn't lead to the conclusions Con is trying to draw here, looking at the etymology won't either, etc.
In the end, I think that Con did make stronger opening arguments, but Con made, in my mind, a serious mistake that can lead to distraction from the issue in later rounds. After round 1 I would say Con is ahead, but there is a question on who can capitalize on the weakness of each others opening rounds more.
ROUND 2
Pro starts his round 2 by expressing disappointment that Con did not rebut arguments but instead presenting a case, saying that it was agreed that Pro would have the full BoP. I do not see where this is expressed though, but it ultimately has no bearing on the weight of the arguments.
Pro starts his rebuttals by attacking one of Con's stronger arguments, and it shows the exact worry I had after the first round (that Con did not spend enough time on the argument). I think most of the ways Pro tried to counter this argument would have failed had Con actually spent time to support the argument in round 1 instead of immediately jumping to make more arguments.
Pro rightly points out the weakness of the "atheists in their own words" section, but I think made a misstep in trying to rebut the "atheism defined" section. Con made sure to use academic sources to support this section while Pro used Merriam-Webster in order to do so (and this is the only time Pro uses a source to support an argument!), but the weight of these are not equal. This really seemed like a weak rebuttal to me.
When Pro addressed the "atheists have a worldview" section he just made a small argument that it is nonsense to attribute atheists having beliefs to atheism containing beliefs, but does not capitalize on showing that this line of argumentation conflicts with other arguments Con made.
Pro's response to the "propositional definition of atheism" section also was very lackluster. He does not go into detail and ignores the Law of Excluded Middle in relation to propositions despite having brought up the Law of Excluded Middle himself in a different point. I think Pro did not spend nearly the amount of time needed to rebut this point, especially when Con built this argument using the SEP as a source.
Pro did, however, rightly point out that Con was relying too much on Wokeupbug's words on Reddit and did not provide the needed support in the actual debate.
Pro's response to Con's question of Pro's authority was also lackluster, especially considering Pro's weak rebuttals to the academic definitions Con provided. Using other people's views, how a term is used by others, etc. in order to strengthen a case is actually a good thing, yet Pro tries to write off Con doing this by arguing the subjectivity of the resolution.
In the end, Pro did manage to defeat Con's weaker arguments and undermine the etymology argument (though I think Con has potential of coming back from that one), but I find the rest of Pro's arguments this round to be very lackluster. Considering how weak I found Pro's opening arguments, I think that Con has the potential to capitalize on this and, if he does so, leave Pro little room to catch up in the last round.
RFD(3/3)
So, did Con capitalize on this opportunity? Sadly, no.
I think Con did a good job pointing out Pro's lack of sourcing to support the "lack" definition, but a lot of the rest of Con's pre-R1 rebuttal seemed as if it was unneeded or belonged elsewhere in the round.
Con does, in the R1 rebuttal section, point out that Pro's position is more aligned with what is normally understood to be agnosticism, but there is hardly any actual space dedicated to showing this. Instead, Con jumps to use a Dawkins quote, which really seems quite weak. I do think Con's argument that an atheist is one that rejects any god concept is a decent enough rebuttal to Pro's "logically untenable" argument, but it is weakened by not narrowing down what "god" means, as without that Pro can still appeal to "god is too vague a term". Con could have, alternatively, gone down the route of arguing noncognitivism as a subset of atheism, but he doesn't do that either.
Even the response to the practical uselessness section was disappointing. I think that by appealing that Pro's "There is no lack of belief approach" statement that there at least becomes something that Pro needs to respond to, but there rebuttal was so lackluster that it really didn't do much to help Con's case.
This lackluster response also exists when Con tries to address Pro's rebuttals. The only one given any time to be worth anything is the response to etymology, and even then it isn't given the needed depth to be useful.
In the end, Con's round 2 was absolutely wasted potential. Pro managed to bring into doubt one of Con's good arguments and showed Con's weak arguments were just that. I don't think that Pro did a good job addressing all of Con's arguments though, but this round really helped Pro catch up in my mind. Con really could have had this in the bag after this round, instead they let Pro catch up, making it so that Pro very well could turn this around in Round 3.
ROUND 3
Pro starts this round by, imo, overstating how strong his case has been so far (not that I blame him after seeing Con's R2), but it really does not do him any good.
Pro starts the actual rebuttals by addressing Con's use of saying Pro's position is more generally understood to be agnosticism (or ignorance or apathy), but the problem is that the rebuttal to the agnostic label requires presupposing Pro's definitions for theism and atheism and not Con's (as Con made clear in his R1 via the SEP that these terms should be understood in relation to a preposition).
Pro dismantles Con's rebuttal of the logical coherence section of R2. The rest of Pro's R3 really seemed to only touch on the points being made or used, imo, some uncharitable interpretations. I do think, however, the Pro does correctly point out some of Con's inconsistencies in regards to if there is a middle position or not.
Con starts R2 giving his insight into how things have played out, but it really does not help his case when he is as behind as he is. The only part of this section that I think did help, at least on some level, was "Accept my definitions as opposed to Pros" part, but this really should have been saved for the end of the round.
Con then points out that Pro only ever used 2 sources, but this was unnecessary as it was already brought up in round 2 without a strong/convincing challenge to it.
Con then spends the rest of the round barely making a strong point against any of Pro's arguments or rebuttals so far.
In the end, Con wasted rounds 2 and 3 while having an almost solid round 1. The biggest issue is how many different lines of argumentation Con tried to use and uphold, causing him to not have enough time to give them adequate time in the following rounds. Pro did manage to keep his initial arguments at least somewhat standing, but also didn't create a strong counter to Con's stronger arguments. However, because Con did not actually spend enough time reinforcing these arguments in rounds 2 and 3 they really started to loose their "oomf". I honestly don't think that I can give Con points for arguments, but I also think Pro's arguments were lackluster and that Pro failed to give a truly solid rebuttal to Con's stronger arguments.
As such, I am leaving arguments at a tie.
How can we explain the beginning of theism? Well,recognizing the evolutionary roots of much of human behavior, it seems that a psychological susceptibility to belief in God is the result of adaptive design. That hypothesis would only make sense if indeed there were behaviors associated with such susceptibility that made us genetically successful. Just as canine teeth evolved to help people rip the flesh off bones, could a belief in God have evolved to help people tear off bits of meaning from an otherwise meaningless existence? Or perhaps God is simply a spandrel—an architectural term (for an ornamental arch) adopted by Stephen Jay Gould and Richard Lewontin to indicate a biological feature that is passed down part and parcel with another trait and is not on its own a product of natural selection. God might be an accidental by-product of human cognitive evolution, a functionless leftover of the capacity to reason about other human minds in the everyday social world, as cognitive scientists such as Pascal Boyer of Washington University in St. Louis believe.
the key point you seem to be missing is,
"atheists" do not have a king
"atheists" are independent thinkers
"atheists" do not follow dogma or sacred texts
you keep referencing famous writers
nobody gives a single shit who wrote what and who called themselves an "atheist" or not
"atheists" are not "united" any more than "nonsmokers" are "united"
"atheists" are not "united" any more than "non-stamp-collectors" are "united"
the "apolitical" example illustrates this best
"apolitical" does not mean "anti-political" and does not mean someone "hates politics"
they simply don't give a shit about politics
also, you both missed the point that a DEIST is technically an ATHEIST (not a theist)
DEISM IS FUNCTIONALLY INDISTINGUISHABLE FROM ATHEISM
you can't make any assumptions about why someone chooses to identify as a "non-smoker" and you furthermore can't make any assumptions about what other beliefs this person ("non-smoker") might subscribe to
you can't make any assumptions about why someone chooses to identify as an "atheist" and you furthermore can't make any assumptions about what other beliefs this person ("atheist") might subscribe to
people are free to call themselves whatever they wish - - for whatever reasons (or non-reasons) they wish
Why did you make the voting period 60 days?